1: You can export the data in a grid as a
______
A. Text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.
B. Text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word
C. Text file, Microsoft Excel, or HTML document.
D: Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.
A. Text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.
B. Text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word
C. Text file, Microsoft Excel, or HTML document.
D: Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.
2: When a requirement, test, or defect
changes, Quality Center alerts the associated entities and can notify those
responsible for any associated entities.
A. True
A. True
B. False
3: A …….indicates that
the alert is new. A gray flag indicates that the alert has already been read.
A. Green flag
A. Green flag
B. Pink flag
C. Red flag
C. Red flag
D: Blue flag
4: Quality Center
enables you to add your own alerts, in addition to automatic traceability notifications.
You can use………flags to remind yourself to follow up on something.
A. Alert Me
A. Alert Me
B. Follow
up
C. Follow
Me
D: Follow
5: Throughout the
testing process, you can add attachments to help illustrate your work.
A. True
A. True
B. False
6: You can use a
Uniform Resource Locator (URL) to a Quality Center record as an attachment.
A. True
A. True
B. False
7: A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the record does not see your follow up alert.
A. True B. False
7: A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the record does not see your follow up alert.
A. True B. False
8: A ……….is a view of
a Quality Center window with the settings you apply to it.
A. Personal view
A. Personal view
B. My view
C. Favorite view
C. Favorite view
D: Fav view
9: By default, Quality Center displays the four most recently used views on the Favorites menu. You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the……..parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A. FAVORITES_DEPTH
9: By default, Quality Center displays the four most recently used views on the Favorites menu. You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the……..parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A. FAVORITES_DEPTH
B. FAVORITES-DEPTH
C. FAVORITE_DEPTH
C. FAVORITE_DEPTH
D: FAVORITE_DEPTHS
10: You save favorite views in either
a…..folder or a…….folder. Views in a….folder are accessible to all users. Views
in a……..folder are accessible only to the user who created them.
A. Public, private, public, private
A. Public, private, public, private
B. Root, Base, Root,
Base,
C. Locked, unlocked, locked, unlocked
C. Locked, unlocked, locked, unlocked
D: Both B & C
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11: You access Quality Center over the _______
via a Web browser.
A. Internet
A. Internet
B. a corporate
intranet
C. Mobile
Internet
D: Both A & B
12:Quality Center also
features a sophisticated system for tracking application defects, enabling you
to monitor defects closely from initial detection until resolution.
A. True
A. True
B. False
13: Test management with Quality Center involves five phases:
A. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Run Tests.
B. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects.
C. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Analyze Tests.
D: Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Analyze Tests, Track Defects.
14: Each Quality Center project is supported by a _______ that stores project information.
A. Root folder
13: Test management with Quality Center involves five phases:
A. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Run Tests.
B. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects.
C. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Analyze Tests.
D: Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Analyze Tests, Track Defects.
14: Each Quality Center project is supported by a _______ that stores project information.
A. Root folder
B.
Database
C. Flat
File
D: Both B & C
15: Quality Center
enables you to manage user access to a project. The_______ determines the
privileges that the user has within a project.
A. QC group
A. QC group
B. User_Account group
C. Account group
C. Account group
D: user group
16: You can import
data from _______ to a Quality Center project.
A. Word or Notepad
A. Word or Notepad
B. Word or Wordpad
C. Word or Excel
C. Word or Excel
D: Word or Power Point
17: You launch Quality Center on your machine from your Web browser.
A. True
17: You launch Quality Center on your machine from your Web browser.
A. True
B. False
18: Quality Center prompts you to install _______ if it is not already installed on your machine.
A. Microsoft Java 2.0
18: Quality Center prompts you to install _______ if it is not already installed on your machine.
A. Microsoft Java 2.0
B. Microsoft Visio
13.0
C. Microsoft Visual studio 2.0
C. Microsoft Visual studio 2.0
D: Microsoft .NET
Framework 2.0
19: Quality Center has the following modules, which are accessible from the sidebar:
A. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
B. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Business Components
C. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
D: Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects
20: When you customize your project, you can instruct Quality Center to preserve a log of values for the system and user fields in your Requirement, Test, Test Set, Test Instance, and Defect entities.
A. True
19: Quality Center has the following modules, which are accessible from the sidebar:
A. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
B. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Business Components
C. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
D: Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects
20: When you customize your project, you can instruct Quality Center to preserve a log of values for the system and user fields in your Requirement, Test, Test Set, Test Instance, and Defect entities.
A. True
B. False
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21: The ________ can
send messages to users connected to Quality Center projects informing them
about important maintenance or other issues.
A. Site administer
A. Site administer
B. Site Controller
C. Site Analyser
C. Site Analyser
D: Site administrator
22: Quality Center
organizes and displays data in ________
A.
Grids
B.
Trees
C.
Folders
D: Both A & B
23: You can no longer customize data by specifying the order in which columns appear, and by changing column size.
A. True
23: You can no longer customize data by specifying the order in which columns appear, and by changing column size.
A. True
B. False
24: You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet the criteria that you define.
A. True
24: You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet the criteria that you define.
A. True
B. False
25: When defining a filter, you can also include a cross filter. This is an advanced ________ on an associated item such as requirements, tests, test sets, or defects.
A. Secondary filter
25: When defining a filter, you can also include a cross filter. This is an advanced ________ on an associated item such as requirements, tests, test sets, or defects.
A. Secondary filter
B. Primary filter
C. Cross filter
C. Cross filter
D: Second filter
26: By default, records appear in Quality Center according to the ________
26: By default, records appear in Quality Center according to the ________
A. Increasing
order
B. Decreasing order
C. Order in which they were added.
C. Order in which they were added.
D: Order in which they
were deleted.
27: You cannot copy
and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to and from the Clipboard.
A. True B. False
A. True B. False
28: You can use text
search to search for records in predefined fields of the ________
A. Requirements, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
B. Releases, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
C. Requirements and Defects modules.
D: Requirements, Execute Tests, and Defects modules.
29: If you have defined filter conditions for a module, you can restrict the search to the filtered records, or you can search all records in the module
A. True
A. Requirements, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
B. Releases, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
C. Requirements and Defects modules.
D: Requirements, Execute Tests, and Defects modules.
29: If you have defined filter conditions for a module, you can restrict the search to the filtered records, or you can search all records in the module
A. True
B. False
30: Text search is only available if it has been enabled for the project.
A. True
30: Text search is only available if it has been enabled for the project.
A. True
B. False
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31: QA Manager changes
a requirement from a ___________ status to a Reviewed status once it is
approved.
A.
Released
B. Tested
C. Not reviewed
D. None of the above
32: You can also
import requirements to your Quality Center project from Microsoft Word, Excel,
or other third-party requirement management tools. To import requirements, you
must first install the appropriate _____________
A. HP Third
Party
add-in.
B. HP Quality Center
add-in.
C. HP Quality Center
C. HP Quality Center
D. HP Quality Center
License
33: The Requirements
Grid view enables you to display requirements in a _________ view.
A.
Flat
B.
Hierarchical
C.
Flat-hierarchical
D. Flat
non-hierarchical
34: The _________ view
enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements according to test
coverage status.
A. Coverage Analysis
A. Coverage Analysis
B. Coverage
Requirements
C. Coverage
C. Coverage
D. Coverage Tests
35: You can access the
Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the shortcut key
___________.
A.
F1
B.
F9
C. Ctrl +
R
D. Alt + R
36: You can use the
____________to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the
Requirements module.
A. Script
Edit
B. Scriptor
Editor
C. Script Editor D. Script Editing
37: The Requirements
module enables you to define and manage your _________
A.
Requirements
B. All
requirements
C. Some
requirements
D. Tedious
requirements
38: You can rename or
delete Requirements root folder.
A.
True
B. False
39: You can search for
a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid
using the _________ command.
A.
Search
B.
Find
C. Search
All
D. Find All
40: You can replace
field values in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the
___________command.
A. Replace
A. Replace
B. Replace
All
C. Find &
Replace
D. Replace & Find
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41: To set a Quick Test Professional test as a
template test, right-click the test in the test plan tree, and choose _________
A. Template
Test
B. Template
Tree
C. Template
Plan
D. Template
42: You can change the
label of any of the test detail fields.
A.
True
B. False
43: A question mark
icon in the test plan tree indicates that the QuickTest Professional add-in is
_________ on your machine.
A. Not
activated
B. Not installed
C. Not enabled
D. Not set
44: A ________ link is
included in the e-mail, enabling the recipient to go directly to the test.
A. Link To
Test
B. Move To
Test
C. Go To
Test
D. Test
45: In the Test Plan module, you create ________ by selecting requirements to link to a test.
45: In the Test Plan module, you create ________ by selecting requirements to link to a test.
A. RTM
B. Requirements
coverage
C. Test
coverage
D. SRS
46: Alternatively, in
the Requirements module, you create _______ by selecting tests to link to a
requirement.
A. RTM
B. Requirements
coverage
C. Test
coverage
D. SRS
47: A test can cover
more than one requirement, and a requirement can be covered by only one test.
A.
True
B. False
48: You can also
create coverage between test instances and requirements. You can enable this
feature using the __________ parameter in Site Administration
A.
ALLOW_REQ_COVERAGE_BY_TEST_INSTANCE
B. ALLOW_TEST_COVERAGE_BY_REQ_INSTANCE
C. ALLOW_R_COVERAGE_BY_T_INSTANCE
D. None of above
B. ALLOW_TEST_COVERAGE_BY_REQ_INSTANCE
C. ALLOW_R_COVERAGE_BY_T_INSTANCE
D. None of above
49: Requirements
coverage is created automatically when you convert a requirement to a test.
Therefore, even if you have not yet added requirements coverage, it may already
exist.
A.
True
B. False
50: You can also
define requirements coverage by dragging a requirement in the requirements tree
to the coverage grid. The requirement is added to the coverage grid without its
child requirements.
A.
True
B. False
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51: Each requirement
type with risk-based quality management enabled supports either.
A. Risk analysis
or risk assessment
B. Risk breakdown or
risk assessment
C. Risk breakdown or risk review
C. Risk breakdown or risk review
D. Risk analysis or
risk evaluation
52: Performing a
risk-based quality management analysis for an analysis requirement involves the
following steps
A. Determine
Risk groups, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze
Testing Strategy
B. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing guidelines Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
C. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing guidelines, Analyze Testing Strategy
D. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
B. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing guidelines Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
C. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing guidelines, Analyze Testing Strategy
D. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
53: A __________
requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents higher levels
in the requirements tree hierarchy, such as the Folder type.
A.
Analysis
B.
Assessment
C.
Policy
D. Test
54: A _________ requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents requirements that are children of analysis requirements and at a lower level in the requirements tree hierarchy.
54: A _________ requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents requirements that are children of analysis requirements and at a lower level in the requirements tree hierarchy.
A.
Analysis
B.
Assessment
C.
Policy
D. Test
55: For each assessment
requirement under the analysis requirement, you determine the Risk Category.
The Risk Category is composed of two factors.
A. Business
Probability and Failure Criticality
B. Business Vitality
and Failure
Probability
C. Business
Criticality and Failure Probability
D. Business Criticality and Failure Possibility
D. Business Criticality and Failure Possibility
56: The Business Criticality of a requirement
has three possible values:
A. Critical,
Important, Nice to Have
B. Critical,
Importance, Nice to Have
C. Critical, Important, Nice to Had
C. Critical, Important, Nice to Had
D. None of these
57: The Failure
Probability of a requirement has three possible values:
A. High, Standard, Low
A. High, Standard, Low
B. High, Average, Low
C. High, Medium, Low
C. High, Medium, Low
D. None of these
58: Quality Center
defines four Testing Levels.
A. Full,
Partial, Basic, and Low
B. Full, Partial,
Basic, and None
C. Full, Half, Basic, and None
C. Full, Half, Basic, and None
D. Full, Partial,
Critical, and None
59: The Business
Criticality of a requirement is a measure of how likely a test on the
requirement is to fail, based on the technical complexity of the requirements
implementation, without consideration of the requirements impact on the
business.
A.
True
B. False
60: The Failure
Probability of a requirement is a measure of how important the requirement is
to your business
A.
True
B. False
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61: You can add a new defect to a Quality
Center project from any module at any stage of the testing process.
A. True
A. True
B. False
62: There are two methods you can use to conduct a search for similar/related defects:
A. Find parallel Defects & Find parallel Text.
B. Find related Defects & Find related Text.
C. Find Similar Defects & Find Similar Text.
D. Find all Defects & Find all Text.
63: You can update defects directly in the _____ or in the ______ dialog box.
A. Defects Grid
62: There are two methods you can use to conduct a search for similar/related defects:
A. Find parallel Defects & Find parallel Text.
B. Find related Defects & Find related Text.
C. Find Similar Defects & Find Similar Text.
D. Find all Defects & Find all Text.
63: You can update defects directly in the _____ or in the ______ dialog box.
A. Defects Grid
B. Defects
Detail
C. Defects
Module
D. Both A &
B E:
Both B & C
64: You can only see
changes made to a defect for selected fields predefined by the project
administrator in Project Customization.
A. True
A. True
B. False
65: By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send e-mail as plain text instead, edit the parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration
A. M_FORMAT
65: By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send e-mail as plain text instead, edit the parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration
A. M_FORMAT
B. MAIL_FORMAT_ID
C. MAIL_FORM
D. MAIL_FORMAT
66: You can link a defect to the run steps and other defects.
A. True
66: You can link a defect to the run steps and other defects.
A. True
B. False
67: You can only remove direct links from the Linked Defects grid. Indirect links are removed automatically when the direct links are removed.
A. True
67: You can only remove direct links from the Linked Defects grid. Indirect links are removed automatically when the direct links are removed.
A. True
B. False
68: Quality Center reports can be generated from the
A. Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab,Defects modules.
B. Requirements,Test Plan,Defects modules.
C. Requirements & Test Plan modules.
D. Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab modules.
69: You can export grid data as a text file, Microsoft Excel spreadsheet, Microsoft Word document, or HTML document. You export data from the
A. Requirements Grid & Defects Grid.
B. Requirements Grid,Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
C. Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
D. Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid.
70: How many Reports (Not Sub-Reports: are available in Requirements module.
A. 5
68: Quality Center reports can be generated from the
A. Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab,Defects modules.
B. Requirements,Test Plan,Defects modules.
C. Requirements & Test Plan modules.
D. Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab modules.
69: You can export grid data as a text file, Microsoft Excel spreadsheet, Microsoft Word document, or HTML document. You export data from the
A. Requirements Grid & Defects Grid.
B. Requirements Grid,Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
C. Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
D. Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid.
70: How many Reports (Not Sub-Reports: are available in Requirements module.
A. 5
B.
6
C.
7
D. 4
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71: Using Quality Center Test Lab module,
executing tests also consists of __________
A. Run Tests
Automatically
B. Run Tests Manually
C. Both A and B
C. Both A and B
D. None of above
72: You can access the
Test Lab menu bar from the Test Lab module by pressing the shortcut key ______
A.
F6
B.
F7
C.
F8
D. F9
73: The Test Lab
module includes the following toolbars:
A. Test Set and
Select
Tests
B. Test Select and Set
Tests
C. Set Test and Tests Select
C. Set Test and Tests Select
D. None of above
74: In the Test Lab
Module, in Execution Grid Columns, the column Exec Date means
A. The date on
which the test was first executed.
B. The date on which the test was last executed
C. The date on which the test was executed
D. The date on which the test will be executed in future
B. The date on which the test was last executed
C. The date on which the test was executed
D. The date on which the test will be executed in future
75: You can add
user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Execution
Grid.
A.
True
B. False
76: You can organize
test execution by creating _______
A. Test
modules
B. Test
flows
C. Test
beds
D. Test sets
77: While creating
test sets, after you design tests in the Test Plan module, you create a _______
A. Test sets
tree
B. Test sets
flow
C. Test sets
grid
D. Test sets rows
78: By default, the
uppermost level in a test sets tree is the ________
A. Level 0
folder
B. Top
folder
C. Highest level
folder
D. Root folder
79: You can also use
the _________ in the Test Instance Properties dialog box (Changing the Default
Failure Rules for Specific Tests) to set the on failure rules for a test in a
test set.
A. Run Events
view
B. Run Events Grid
C. Run Events
menu
D. Run Eventsmodule
80: You can also drag
the test sets between lists.
A.
True
B. False
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81: You can define a logo for the project
document, and save the image so that it is available for other users in the
current project. If you do not select an image, the Document Generator uses the
Mercury logo in the project document.
A. True B. False
A. True B. False
82: While specifying Requirements module data
(Generating Project Documents) Microsoft Word is limited to _________ header
levels in the table of contents.
A. Seven
A. Seven
B.
Eight
C.
Nine
D. Ten
83: You use the _________ pages to specify the information from the test plan tree view of the Test Plan module that should appear in the project document.
A. Subject Tree
83: You use the _________ pages to specify the information from the test plan tree view of the Test Plan module that should appear in the project document.
A. Subject Tree
B. Subject
Tests
C. Subject
plans
D. Both A & B
84: You use the _________ pages to specify the information from the Test Lab module that should appear in the project document.
A. Tests Lab, Test Set, Tests, and Run
84: You use the _________ pages to specify the information from the Test Lab module that should appear in the project document.
A. Tests Lab, Test Set, Tests, and Run
B. Test Labs, Test
Sets, Tests, and Runs
C. Test Lab, Test Gets, Tests, and Runs
C. Test Lab, Test Gets, Tests, and Runs
D. Test Lab, Test
Sets, Tests, and Runs
85: You can generate a _________ that enables you to quickly see how the document will look, without all the detail included.
A. View project document
85: You can generate a _________ that enables you to quickly see how the document will look, without all the detail included.
A. View project document
B. Preview project
document
C. Pre project document
C. Pre project document
D. None
86: You can generate
Excel reports that enable you to export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel
and analyze the data from within Excel.
A. True
A. True
B. False
87: You can export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel. You cannot create a report with parameters.
A. True
87: You can export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel. You cannot create a report with parameters.
A. True
B. False
88: Most of the Excel Reports functionality is unavailable if you belong to a user group that has the necessary permissions.
A. True
88: Most of the Excel Reports functionality is unavailable if you belong to a user group that has the necessary permissions.
A. True
B. False
89: After you have added a report to the Excel Reports tree, you must define which project data you want to include in the report. You define this data by creating _______ to extract the data.
A. Test Queries
89: After you have added a report to the Excel Reports tree, you must define which project data you want to include in the report. You define this data by creating _______ to extract the data.
A. Test Queries
B. Lotus
Queries
C. Excel
Macros
D. SQL queries
90: To view the database type used for your project database, click the ________ button.
A. Database in use
90: To view the database type used for your project database, click the ________ button.
A. Database in use
B. Database
Type
C. Get
Database
D. Database version
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|
D
|
B
|
A
|
B
|
B
|
D
|
B
|
91: The Requirements
________ view enables you to display requirements in a flat non-hierarchical
view. Each line in the ________ displays a separate requirement.
A. File, file
A. File, file
B. Hierarchical,
hierarchy
C. Grid, Grid
C. Grid, Grid
D. Both B & C
92: The _________ Analysis view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements according to test __________ Status.
A. Plan
92: The _________ Analysis view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements according to test __________ Status.
A. Plan
B.
Requirement
C.
Coverage
D. Task
93: You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the shortcut key ________
93: You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the shortcut key ________
A.
F6
B.
F7
C.
F8
D. F9
94: The Requirement module field Direct Cover Status means
A. The current status of the requirement
B. The previous status of the requirement
C. The coming status of the requirement
D. The fixed status of the requirement
95: You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Requirements module.
A. True
94: The Requirement module field Direct Cover Status means
A. The current status of the requirement
B. The previous status of the requirement
C. The coming status of the requirement
D. The fixed status of the requirement
95: You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Requirements module.
A. True
B. False
96: You start a requirements tree by adding requirements to the Requirements root folder.
A. True
96: You start a requirements tree by adding requirements to the Requirements root folder.
A. True
B. False
97: You can add, view, and edit Microsoft Word rich text from within Quality Center, without the need to edit the text in Word.
A. True
97: You can add, view, and edit Microsoft Word rich text from within Quality Center, without the need to edit the text in Word.
A. True
B. False
98: You cannot update your requirements directly in the requirements tree or grid, or in the Requirement Details dialog box.
A. True
98: You cannot update your requirements directly in the requirements tree or grid, or in the Requirement Details dialog box.
A. True
B. False
99: You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the _________ command.
A. Search
99: You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the _________ command.
A. Search
B.
Find
C.
Look
D. Get
100: You can send e-mail about a requirement to other users in your Quality Center project
100: You can send e-mail about a requirement to other users in your Quality Center project
A. True
B. False
91
|
92
|
93
|
94
|
95
|
96
|
97
|
98
|
99
|
100
|
C
|
C
|
D
|
A
|
A
|
A
|
A
|
B
|
B
|
A
|
|
|
|
101: You can view a list of alerts for a
_____________ entity.
A. A test in the
test plan tree or Test Grid
B. A test instance in the Execution Grid
C. None of above
D. Both A. & B.
B. A test instance in the Execution Grid
C. None of above
D. Both A. & B.
102: A red flag
indicates that the alert is _____________
A.
New
B.
Old
C. Follow
up
D. Urgent
103: A gray flag
indicates that the alert __________.
A.
New
B. has already been
read
C. Follow
up
D. Urgent
104: A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the record does not see your follow up alert.
A.
True
B. False
105: Quality Center assigns the image a unique
file name with a _______ Extension.
A.
.jpeg
B.
.gif
C.
.doc
D. .jpg
106: A __________ is a view of a Quality
Center window with the settings you apply to it.
A. Personal
View
B. My
view
C. Favorite
View
D. My QC View
107: You save favorite views in ______
A. Favorite folder
B. Personal
folder
C. Both A &
B
D. Public &
Private folder
108: You can define the number of views
displayed on the menu by setting the ________ parameter in the Site Configuration
tab in Site Administration.
A.
favorites
B.
favorites_Depth
C.
favorites_view
D. favorites_Path
109: The requirements specification workflow
consists of the following:
A. Define Testing
Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases, Analyze
Requirements
B. Define Testing Scope, Detail Requirements, Create Requirements, Assign to Releases, Analyze Requirements
C. Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Assign to Releases
D. Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases
B. Define Testing Scope, Detail Requirements, Create Requirements, Assign to Releases, Analyze Requirements
C. Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Assign to Releases
D. Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases
110: Requirement topics are recorded in the
Requirements module by creating a
A. Requirements
cycle
B. Requirements tree
C. Requirements plan
C. Requirements plan
D. Requirements module
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
101
|
D
|
102
|
A
|
103
|
B
|
104
|
A
|
105
|
D
|
106
|
C
|
107
|
D
|
108
|
B
|
109
|
A
|
110
|
B
|
111: You cannot copy a requirement within the
same project or between projects.
A.
True
B. False
112: Test coverage, defect linkage, and risk-based quality management data for the requirement are not copied.
A.
True
B. False
113: Methods you can use to create tests from requirements:
A. Convert
Requirements to Tests
B. Generate a Test from Requirements.
C. Get a test from a requirement
D. Both A & B
E: Both B & C
B. Generate a Test from Requirements.
C. Get a test from a requirement
D. Both A & B
E: Both B & C
114: Using the Requirements Traceability tab in the Requirement Details view, you can add traceability links to and from a selected requirement. _______ Links indicate requirements that affect a selected requirement. _________ Links indicate requirements that are affected by a selected requirement.
A. Trace from, Trace
to
B. Trace to, Trace
from
C. Trace from select, Trace to select
C. Trace from select, Trace to select
D. Trace to select,
Trace from select
115: When a requirement changes, Quality
Center alerts the affected requirements. The alerts can be seen by all users.
A.
True
B. False
116: You can display traceability relationships that exist between requirements in the ________ tab. This tab contains the Trace From and Trace To grids.
A.
Traceability
B. Relationships
C. Req-traceability
D. Traceability-Req
117: The __________ feature enables you to calculate at which level to test each requirement, based on the nature of the requirement and the resources you have available.
A. Level-based quality
management
B. Calculate-based quality management
C. Risk-based quality management
D. None of above
B. Calculate-based quality management
C. Risk-based quality management
D. None of above
118: You can assign or calculate the Risk Category of an assessment requirement. The Risk Category is composed of its __________
A. Business
Criticality & Failure Probability
B. Business Probability & Failure Criticality
C. Priority & Severity
D. None of above
B. Business Probability & Failure Criticality
C. Priority & Severity
D. None of above
119: Quality Center defines four Testing
Levels:
A. First, second,
third, and fourth
B. Full, Partial, Basic, and None
C. Full, Partial, Basic, and moderate
D. Partial, Basic, moderate and Advanced
B. Full, Partial, Basic, and None
C. Full, Partial, Basic, and moderate
D. Partial, Basic, moderate and Advanced
120: The __________ link displays the requirements for which you did not determine a Risk Category or exclude explicitly from the analysis.
A. Missing risk
assessment
B. Miss assessment
C. Missing assessment
C. Missing assessment
D. Exclude assessment
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
111
|
B
|
112
|
A
|
113
|
D
|
114
|
A
|
115
|
A
|
116
|
B
|
117
|
C
|
118
|
A
|
119
|
B
|
120
|
C
|
121: By default, Quality Center sends e-mail
in HTML format. To send e-mail as plain text instead, edit the _________
parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A.
EMAIL_FORMAT
B.
EMAIL_FORM
C.
MAIL_FORMAT
D. QC_MAIL_FORMAT
122: You can copy a requirement within the
same project or between projects. Which of the below items are copied at the
time of copying a requirement.
A. Test
coverage.
B. Defect linkage.
C. Risk-based quality management data
C. Risk-based quality management data
D. All of above
E: None of above
123: You can also move a requirement to a new
location in the requirements tree by dragging it.
A.
True
B. False
124: You can delete a requirement from the
Requirements module. Deleting a requirement does not delete its child
requirements, tests coverage, requirement traceability links, and defects
linkage.
A.True
B. False
125: There are two methods you can use to
create tests from requirements:
A. Convert
Requirements to Tests & Generate a Test from Requirements
B. Convert Requirements to Tests & Convert a Test from Requirements
C. Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Requirement from Tests
D. Convert a Test from Requirements & Generate Requirements to Tests
B. Convert Requirements to Tests & Convert a Test from Requirements
C. Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Requirement from Tests
D. Convert a Test from Requirements & Generate Requirements to Tests
126: When analyzing the impact of a change
proposed in a specific requirement, the traceability links indicate the other
________ that the change might affect.
A.
Tests
B.
Requirements
C. Tests &
requirements
D. None
127: The ______ links indicate requirements
that affect a selected requirement _______ links indicate requirements that are
affected by a selected requirement.
A. Trace from, Trace
to
B. Trace to, Trace
from
C. From trace, To trace
C. From trace, To trace
D. None of above
128: When a requirement changes, Quality
Center alerts the affected requirements. The alerts can be seen by______
A. Author of the
requirement
B. Users authorized by
the Author of the requirement
C. All users
C. All users
D. Administrator
129: while Defining Traceability
Relationships, You cannot add a requirement traceability link by dragging a
requirement from the requirements tree to the appropriate grid.
A. True
A. True
B. False
130: While viewing Traceability Impact, the
Impact Analysis tab helps you understand the many associations and dependencies
that exist between the ______ by displaying them in a hierarchical tree
structure.
A.
Tests
B. Requirements
C. Both
C. Both
D. None
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
121
|
C
|
122
|
E
|
123
|
A
|
124
|
B
|
125
|
A
|
126
|
B
|
127
|
A
|
128
|
C
|
129
|
B
|
130
|
B
|
131: The requirements _________ is a graphical
representation of your requirements specification, displaying the hierarchical
relationship between different requirements.
A.
Graph
B.
Plan
C.
Path
D. Tree
132: For each requirement topic, a QA tester creates a list of __________ in the requirements tree.
A. Detailed
requirements
B. Detailed
specifications
C. Detailed plans
C. Detailed plans
D. Detailed
sub-requirements
133: Each requirement in the tree is described in detail and cannot include any relevant attachments.
A. True
B. False
134: After defining your requirements, you can add traceability between the requirements. When analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific requirement _________ shows the other requirements that the change might affect.
A.
Equality
B.
Link-ability
C.
Traceability
D. Cross-links
135: QA managers assign the requirements to releases and cycles in the releases tree in the Releases module.
A.
True
B. False
136: The assigned requirements are then used as a basis for the test plan in the Test Plan module. The tests you create during the test plan phase are then linked to these requirements to create _______
A.
Linkages
B. Linked-requirements
C. Requirements plan
C. Requirements plan
D. Coverage
137: QA managers review the requirements, they change a requirement from a Not Reviewed status to a _______ Status once it is approved.
A.
Passed
B.
Reviewed
C. Partially
reviewed
D. Both B & C
138: You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from ________
A. Microsoft
Word
B. Excel
C. Other third-party requirement management tools
C. Other third-party requirement management tools
D. All of above
139: In the Requirements Tree view, Indicator columns indicates that the specified requirement has
A. Attachments, linked
defects, alerts, and follow up flags
B. Attachments, linked defects, alerts
C. Attachments, linked defects and follow up flags
D. Linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags
B. Attachments, linked defects, alerts
C. Attachments, linked defects and follow up flags
D. Linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags
140: To find a specific requirement by ReqID in the Requirements Tree view, choose __________ and enter the requirement ID.
A. Requirements > Find Requirement
B. Requirements > Go to Requirement
C. Requirements > Get Requirement
D. Requirements > Display Requirement
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
131
|
D
|
132
|
A
|
133
|
B
|
134
|
C
|
135
|
A
|
136
|
D
|
137
|
B
|
138
|
D
|
139
|
A
|
140
|
B
|
141: During Requirement Risks calculation, the
________ displays the requirements for which you did not determine a Risk
Category or exclude explicitly from the analysis
A. Missing assessment
link
B. Missing assessment
field
C. Missing assessment value
C. Missing assessment value
D. Missing assessment
relation
142: A good test plan enables you to assess
the quality of your application ________ in the testing process.
A. At the
beginning
B. At the
end
C. At the
point
D. At the middle
143: Which of the item is not a part of
"Developing a test plan" in QC.
A. Design Test
Steps
B. Design Tests
C. Automate Tests
C. Automate Tests
D. Define Testing
Policy Settings
144: You can access the Test Plan menu bar
from the Test Plan module by pressing the shortcut key ________
A.
F7
B.
F9
C.
F12
D. F11
145: To find a specific test by Test ID in the
Test Grid, choose ________ and enter the test ID
A. Test > Go to
Test
B. Test > find Test
C. Test > search Test
C. Test > search Test
D. Test > link Test
146: In relation to a test plan module, You
can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the
Test Grid
A.
True,
B. False
147: You can use the ________ to restrict and
dynamically change the fields and values in the Test Grid.
A. Text
editor
B. Script editor
C. Scriptor
editor
D. Scripts editor
148: The typical application is too large to
test as a whole. The Test Plan module enables you to divide your application
according to ________
A. Functionality
B.
Requirements
C. Tst
plans
D. Test modules
149: During the testing process, you may need
to modify your test plan. You can update the test plan tree ________
A. At the
beginning
B. At the
end
C. At any
time
D. In the middle
150: Developing and editing a test plan tree
requires appropriate user ________
A.
IDs
B.
Requirements
C. Permissions
D. Passwords
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
141
|
A
|
142
|
C
|
143
|
D
|
144
|
B
|
145
|
A
|
146
|
A
|
147
|
B
|
148
|
A
|
149
|
C
|
150
|
C
|
151: You begin the application testing process
by defining a releases tree in the ________
A. Requirements
module
B. Releases module
C. Plan Tests module
C. Plan Tests module
D. Either B or C
152: Releases tree enables the modeling of upcoming releases within a hierarchical tree structure.
A.
True
B. False
153: A release represents a _________ in one or more applications that willbe available for distribution at the same time.
A. Group of
releases
B. Group of changes
C. Group of defects
C. Group of defects
D. Group of requests
154: After defining the release, a QA manager defines _________ A _________ is a set of Development and quality assurance efforts performed to achieve a common goal based on the release timeline.
A. Cycles,
cycle
B. Tries,
Try
C. Priorities,
Priority
D. Files, File
155: After defining the releases tree, the QA manager defines and reviews the _________ in the Requirements module and assigns them to releases andcycles.
A.
Plans
B. Groups of
plans
C. Upcoming
modules
D. Requirements
156: After the QA manager assigns requirements, the QA team leader assigns each ________ folder in the Test Lab module to a cycle.
A. Test
sets
B. Test
set
C. Tests
set
D. Testing set
157: A __________ is a group of testinstances
in a Quality Center project designed to achieve specific test goals.
A. Test
sets
B. Test
set
C. Tests set
D. Testing set
158: A defect can be submitted to a Quality Center project from any module atany stage of the testing process.
A.
True
B. False
159: While reviewing and deciding which new defects need to be fixed, the QAmanager assigns them to the appropriate __________
A. Release and
cycle
B. Cycle and release
C. Defect and cycle
C. Defect and cycle
D. Cycle and defect
160: The QA manager cannot track the progress
of the testing process in real time by analyzing the releases tree and ensuring
that it matches the release goals.
A.
True
B. False
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
151
|
B
|
152
|
A
|
153
|
B
|
154
|
A
|
155
|
D
|
156
|
B
|
157
|
B
|
158
|
A
|
159
|
A
|
160
|
B
|
161: Test management with Quality Center
involves _______ Phases.
A. Four
B.
Five
C.
Six
D. Seven
162: The phases of Test management with
Quality Center in order are:
A. Specify Releases,
Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
B. Specify Requirements, Specify Releases, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
C. Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Specify Releases, Execute Tests, Track Defects
D. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Track Defects, Execute Tests
B. Specify Requirements, Specify Releases, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
C. Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Specify Releases, Execute Tests, Track Defects
D. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Track Defects, Execute Tests
163: By creating a list of authorized users
and assigning each user a password and user group, you control the kinds of
additions and modifications each user makes to the project.
A.
True
B. False
164: The _______ determines the privileges that the user has within a project.
A. User
ID
B. User
Name
C. User
group
D. User SID
165: You can import data from Word or Excel to
a Quality Center project.
A.
True
B. False
166: Quality Center 9.2 prompts you to install
Microsoft .NET _______ if it is not already installed on your machine.
A. Framework
2.0
B. Framework 1.0
C. Framework 3.0
C. Framework 3.0
D. Framework 4.0
167: When you connect to a project, the
Quality Center main window opens and displays the module in which you were last
working.
A.
True
B. False
168: The can change and override a user
_______s properties or password.
A. Global
Administrator
B. Site Administrator
C. Administrator
C. Administrator
D. QC Administrator
169: You can filter Quality Center data to
display only those records that meet the criteria that you define. How many
filters can you define?
A. Single item as a
filter
B. Two items as a
filter
C. Multiple items as filter
C. Multiple items as filter
D. Five items as
filter
170: In the test plan tree, you can define the
_______ filter for associated test sets as ”Open”. This ensures that only tests
that belong to an open test set are displayed.
A.
Double
B.
Twice
C.
Cross
D. Multiple
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
161
|
B
|
162
|
A
|
163
|
A
|
164
|
C
|
165
|
A
|
166
|
A
|
167
|
A
|
168
|
B
|
169
|
C
|
170
|
C
|
171: You can view the test results from the
___________
A. Test Instance
dialog
box.
B. Test Properties
dialog box
C. Test Instance Properties dialog box
C. Test Instance Properties dialog box
D. None
172: The Linked Defects view on the sidebar of Test Instance Properties dialog box displays:
A. Linked defects and
requirements coverage for a test instance
B. Only linked defects for a test instance
C. Linked defects and history for a test instance
D. Linked defects and test results for a test instance
B. Only linked defects for a test instance
C. Linked defects and history for a test instance
D. Linked defects and test results for a test instance
173: Quality Center enables you to compare the results of a test run with the results of previous runs.
A.
True
B. False
174: In the Test Instance Properties dialog box, You can view and edit the On Failure rules for an automated test instance using the __________ view.
A.
Automated
B.
Details
C. Run
Events
D. Both A & C
175: You track defects in the Quality Center
Defects module, which you open by clicking the ________ button on the sidebar.
A. Track
Defects
B. Open
Defects
C.
Defects
D. Log Defects
176: To find a specific defect by Defect ID in the Defects Grid, choose _________
A. Defects >
Defect
B. Defects > Move
To Defect
C. Defects > Set Defect
C. Defects > Set Defect
D. Defects > Go To
Defect
177: Each line in the Defects Grid displays a separate defect record.
A.
True
B. False
178: You cannot add user-defined fields and
change the label of any of the fields in the Defects Grid.
A.
True
B. False
179: You can use the _________ to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Defects Grid.
A. Scripting
Editor
B. Notepad
Editor
C. QC
Editor
D. Script Editor
180: You can link defects to other Quality Center entities, such as requirements, tests and other defects.
A.
True
B. False
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
171
|
C
|
172
|
A
|
173
|
A
|
174
|
C
|
175
|
C
|
176
|
D
|
177
|
A
|
178
|
B
|
179
|
D
|
180
|
A
|
181: Test coverage is created automatically
when you generate a requirement from a test.
A.
True
B. False
182: In the Requirements module, you can use
the _________ view to examine the status of your requirements.
A. Coverage
Analysis
B. Coverage Breakdown
C. Requirements Status
C. Requirements Status
D. Coverage Status
183: By default, coverage is available only
for the following requirement types:
A. Functional,
Testing, and Defined.
B. Functional, Testing, and Undefined.
C. Functional, System, and Undefined.
D. Functional, Review, and Undefined.
B. Functional, Testing, and Undefined.
C. Functional, System, and Undefined.
D. Functional, Review, and Undefined.
184: You can create design steps for
__________
A. Manual tests
B. Automated
tests
C.
SRS
D. Both A and B
185: To increase the flexibility and power of
a test, you can add ________ to the called test and to the tests that call it.
A. Input Values
B. Output
Values
C.
Parameters
D. None of above
186: You do not need to set a test as a
template test to be able to call it or to add parameters. Marking a test as a
template test is used for filtering purposes only.
A.
True
B. False
187: If you do not assign values to parameters
when creating a test call, you are prompted to do so when you call this test
from another test, when you add your test to a test set, or when you run your
test.
A.
True
B. False
188: You can navigate between steps in the Design
Step Editor using shortcut keys. Use _________ to access the first step.
A.
ALT+LEFT
B.
ALT+RIGHT
C.
ALT+HOME
D. ALT+ UP
189: While generating automated test scripts,
what does WR-AUTOMATED automated test type means.
A. A test that is
created by Winrunner
B. A test that is executed by Winrunner
C. A test that is deleted by Winrunner
D. None of above
B. A test that is executed by Winrunner
C. A test that is deleted by Winrunner
D. None of above
190: To run a system test, you must install
the System Execute Remote Agent Add-in and the HP Quality Center Connectivity
Add-in on the machine where the test is to be run.
A.
True
B. False
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
181
|
B
|
182
|
A
|
183
|
B
|
184
|
D
|
185
|
C
|
186
|
A
|
187
|
A
|
188
|
C
|
189
|
B
|
190
|
B
|
191: Quality Center enables you to generate
graphs from the __________.
A. Requirements
module
B. Test Plan module
C. Test Lab module
C. Test Lab module
D. Defects module
E: Both A & C
E: Both A & C
F: All of Above
192: Requirements - Summary Graph
A. Shows how many
requirements accumulated in a Quality Center project at specific points during
a period of time.
B. Shows the history of changes to specific requirement fields in a Quality Center project
C. Shows how many requirements are currently in a Quality Center project.
D. Shows how many tests are currently in a Quality Center project.
B. Shows the history of changes to specific requirement fields in a Quality Center project
C. Shows how many requirements are currently in a Quality Center project.
D. Shows how many tests are currently in a Quality Center project.
193: By default, the graph appears as a
A. Pie
chart,
B. Bar
chart
C. Pareto
chart
D. Both A & B
194: You can also use the Graph Wizard to guide you through the graph creation process.
A.
True
B. False
195: You can determine how information appears in the graph using the _________
A. Graph
toolbar.
B. Graph
settings
C. Graph menu
D. Both A & C
196: The ________ graphs enable you to create
and display a dynamic graphical representation of data related to test plans
and test sets.
A. Live
Value
B. Live
Analysis
C. Live
Analytics
D. Both A & C
197: You use Live Analysis graphs to view data that relates to a _________ folder.
A. Test subject
B. Test
set
C. Test
category
D. Both A & B
198: The Live Analysis graphs that you create are unique for your user login.
A.
True
B. False
199: The Quality Center Document Generator enables you to create a Microsoft Word document containing a projects requirements, planning, test list, test set folders, and defect tracking data.
A.
True
B. False
200: The Document Generator enables you to create a hard copy of the data contained in a Quality Center project.
A.
True
B. False
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
191
|
F
|
192
|
C
|
193
|
B
|
194
|
A
|
195
|
A
|
196
|
B
|
197
|
D
|
198
|
A
|
199
|
A
|
200
|
A
|
201: In the Progress tab, in the Coverage
Progress graph, the Planned coverage curve below the Assigned requirements
curve indicates the percentage of requirements that are_______ throughout the
release.
A.
Run
B.
Covered
C.
Passed
D. Assigned
202: The _________ helps you draw conclusions
quickly and see the number of defects submitted over the course of a release or
cycle.
A. Details
tab
B. Attachments
tab
C. Progress
tab
D. Quality
tab
203: The defects are categorized by _______ in
terms of how they impact system operation.
A.
Priority
B.
Severity
204: You can move a release folder or a release to a different location in the releases tree.
A.
True
B. False
205: The Releases root folder can also be moved.
A.
True
B. False
206: You can create a duplicate of a cycle within the same release.
A.
True
B. False
207: Deleting a release folder, release, or cycle, does not unassigns the associated requirements, test set folders, and defects.
A.
True
B. False
208: You can also move a release folder or a release to a new location in the releases tree by dragging it.
A.
True
B. False
209: After you define a releases tree in the
Releases module, you continue the application testing process by specifying
________
A.
Requirements
B.
Releases
C. Plan
Tests
D. Either B or A
210: Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by creating a requirements _________
A.
Graph
B.
Tree
C.
Path
D. Plan
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
201
|
B
|
202
|
D
|
203
|
B
|
204
|
A
|
205
|
B
|
206
|
A
|
207
|
B
|
208
|
A
|
209
|
A
|
210
|
B
|
211: By default, records appear in Quality
Center in the
A. Increasing
Order
B. Decreasing Order
C. Order in which they were added
C. Order in which they were added
D. None of these
212: You can save filter and sort information
as a favorite view and then load it as needed.
A.
True
B. False
213: You can copy and paste the filter, sort,
and group by settings to another project.
A.
True
B. False
214: You can also share the settings (filter,
sort, and group by settings: with another user by pasting them to an e-mail or
a text file.
A.
True
B. False
215: When you use text search, the search
ignores
A. Articles (a, an,
the)
B. Coordinate
conjunctions (and, but, for, nor, or)
C. Boolean operators (and, or, not, if, or, then)
D. All of above
C. Boolean operators (and, or, not, if, or, then)
D. All of above
216: You can export the data in a grid as a
A. Text
files,
B. Microsoft Excel
worksheet,
C. Microsoft Word
document
D. HTML
document.
E. All of above
217: The __________. alerting functions
available in Quality Center
A.
Three
B.
Four
C.
Two
D. Five
218: The alerting functions in Quality Center
are:
A. Automatic notification
alerts, Follow up alerts
B. Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
C. Defect alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
D. Final alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
B. Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
C. Defect alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
D. Final alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
219: You can create traceability links between
__________ in the Requirements module.
A.
Requirements
B. Test
Cases
C.
Tests
D. Defects
220: You can associate a test instance with a
defect. This is performed by creating __________in the Test Plan module, or by
adding a defect during a manual test run.
A. Linked Tests
B. Linked
Defects
C. Linked
Errors
D. Linked Data
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
211
|
C
|
212
|
A
|
213
|
A
|
214
|
B
|
215
|
D
|
216
|
E
|
217
|
C
|
218
|
A
|
219
|
A
|
220
|
B
|
221: The Execution Flow tab enables you to
watch the execution process as it happens and to control the way your tests are
executed.
A.
True
B. False
222: In the Execution Flow, a dashed line --
-- -> arrow indicates that the test
A. Is to be executed
after the previous test, with no conditions.
B. Is to be executed only if the previous test has status Finished
C. Is to be executed only if the previous test has status Passed
B. Is to be executed only if the previous test has status Finished
C. Is to be executed only if the previous test has status Passed
D. None
223: You can delete a _______ execution condition(s) connected to a test.
A.
Single
B.
Two
C.
Three
D. All
224: When we Run a test, in the Manual Test
Run window, by default which option is selected
A. Manual Runner (Run
according to the order in the Execute GriD.
B. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in then Executing GriD.
C. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the Execution GriD.
D. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the Execution GrinD.
B. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in then Executing GriD.
C. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the Execution GriD.
D. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the Execution GrinD.
225: You can assign multiple values to a parameter during a test run.
A. True
B. False
226: If a manual test run was paused during
execution, you can continue the run at a later stage.
A.
True
B. False
227: You can run tests automatically on __________
A. Your
machine
B. Remote
Hosts
C. Both A &
B
D. None
228: To run several test sets concurrently on
multiple remote hosts, open a new Automatic Runner dialog box instance for each
test set.
A. Auto
Runner
B. Automate Runner
C. Automatic Runner
C. Automatic Runner
D. Manual Runner
229: When you run QuickTest Professional tests from the Test Lab module, they are automatically run in Fast mode. They cannot be run in Normal mode.
A.
True
B. False
230: You can only view the Execution Log even if you did not select Enable Log in the Automatic Runner dialog box before you executed the test.
A.
True
B. False
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
221
|
A
|
222
|
A
|
223
|
D
|
224
|
C
|
225
|
B
|
226
|
A
|
227
|
C
|
228
|
C
|
229
|
A
|
230
|
B
|
231: What web client can be used with Quality
Center 9.2?
A.
Netscape
B. Safari
C. Firefox
D. Internet Explorer
B. Safari
C. Firefox
D. Internet Explorer
232: Which term describes the main function of
Quality Center?
A.
Test cases
B. Repository
C. Load test
D. Defects
B. Repository
C. Load test
D. Defects
233: What database can be used with Quality
Center 9.2? Select two.
A.
Access
B. Sybase
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Paradox
E. Oracle
B. Sybase
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Paradox
E. Oracle
234: What HP functional testing tools
integrate with Quality Center? (Select two.)
A.
HP OpenView
B. HP WinRunner
C. HP QuickTest Professional
D. HP LoadRunner
E. HP Change Control Management
B. HP WinRunner
C. HP QuickTest Professional
D. HP LoadRunner
E. HP Change Control Management
235: Which component provides an
executive-level view of the entire quality process?
A.
Quality Center Foundation
B. Business Process Insight
C. Service Test Component
D. Quality Center Dashboard
B. Business Process Insight
C. Service Test Component
D. Quality Center Dashboard
236: When designing test steps it is important
to ensure that all aspects of the application are tested. When writing test
steps, what are two things that should be done to ensure clear and accurate
steps? (Select two.)
A.
Specify all actual results
B. Use parameters in the step names
C. Specify pass and fail conditions for the step
D. Use the numbering system for the step names
E. Use consistent terminology throughout the test
B. Use parameters in the step names
C. Specify pass and fail conditions for the step
D. Use the numbering system for the step names
E. Use consistent terminology throughout the test
237: Where can you link tests to requirements?
A.
From the Test Lab module
B. From the Requirements module
C. On the test details page (Test Plan)
D. On the attachments page (Test Plan)
B. From the Requirements module
C. On the test details page (Test Plan)
D. On the attachments page (Test Plan)
238: When a called test has parameters, when
can you assign values to the parameters?
A.
Values are assigned from within the calling test
B. Values must be assigned when the test is executed
C. Values are assigned during test design or execution
D. Values must be assigned when the test is called, during test design
B. Values must be assigned when the test is executed
C. Values are assigned during test design or execution
D. Values must be assigned when the test is called, during test design
239: What are the steps, in the correct order,
to convert a requirement to a test?
A.
Make changes to the automatic conversion, select an automatic method
B. Select convert to test, select the destination path, convert to automated test
C. Select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion, select the destination subject path
D. Select the destination subject path, select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion
B. Select convert to test, select the destination path, convert to automated test
C. Select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion, select the destination subject path
D. Select the destination subject path, select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion
240: How is a test configured as a template
test?
A.
The test type chosen must be MANUAL-TEMPLATE
B. The first step in the test must be named template test
C. Right-click on the test name and choose Template Test
D. During test planning, mark the checkbox, under details, labeled template Test
B. The first step in the test must be named template test
C. Right-click on the test name and choose Template Test
D. During test planning, mark the checkbox, under details, labeled template Test
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
231
|
D
|
232
|
B
|
233
|
C, E
|
234
|
B, C
|
235
|
D
|
236
|
C, E
|
237
|
B
|
238
|
C
|
239
|
C
|
240
|
C
|
241: What does the icon in the exhibit
indicate in the Test Plan module, under the Test Script tab?
A.
There is a test script
B. There is not a test script
C. There is a manual test case
D. The test script has changed
B. There is not a test script
C. There is a manual test case
D. The test script has changed
242: While designing the test plan tree, you
accidentally delete a folder that contained some tests that you need. Can you
recover the tests?
A.
No, once a test is deleted, it is gone
B. Yes, the tests can be recovered from the Subject folder
C. Yes, the test can be recovered from the Unattached folder
D. No, only Project Managers have permission to recover deleted tests
B. Yes, the tests can be recovered from the Subject folder
C. Yes, the test can be recovered from the Unattached folder
D. No, only Project Managers have permission to recover deleted tests
243: When you define tests inside of Quality
Center, it is important that the tests are accurate and traceable. What are two
other key pointers when defining tests? Select two.
A.
Simple
B. Consistent
C. Repeatable
D. Convertible
E. Automation
F. Appropriate
B. Consistent
C. Repeatable
D. Convertible
E. Automation
F. Appropriate
244: What test types can be created in Quality
Center? Select three
A.
batch-test
B. vugen-test
C. lr-scenario
D. system-test
E. interface-test
F. wr-automated test
B. vugen-test
C. lr-scenario
D. system-test
E. interface-test
F. wr-automated test
245: In order to reuse a test across other
tests, must the reused test be a template test?
A.
Yes, only template tests are reusable
B. No, the test must be a VAPI test to be reusable
C. Yes, template tests are reusable automated tests
D. No, tests do not need to be template tests to be reused
B. No, the test must be a VAPI test to be reusable
C. Yes, template tests are reusable automated tests
D. No, tests do not need to be template tests to be reused
246: What does a live analysis graph illustrate
in a visual overview?
A.
All the tests in the Test Plan
B. All the cycles or releases the test is linked to
C. All the requirements linked to the specified test
D. All the tests in a specified folder in the Test Plan
B. All the cycles or releases the test is linked to
C. All the requirements linked to the specified test
D. All the tests in a specified folder in the Test Plan
247: How can you create a test plan tree?
A.
Convert releases to tests
B. Define test folders and tests manually
C. Save automated tests in Quality Center
D. Define test names for each test needed
B. Define test folders and tests manually
C. Save automated tests in Quality Center
D. Define test names for each test needed
248: Can you change the values of a called
test's parameters?
A.
No, values are assigned at run time
B. Yes, if the called test is a template test
C. No, you must delete the called test and call it again
D. Yes, right-click and choose Called Test Parameters
B. Yes, if the called test is a template test
C. No, you must delete the called test and call it again
D. Yes, right-click and choose Called Test Parameters
249: When you generate an Excel report, why is
it an advantage to use parameters?
A.
Enables the report to be saved
B. Enables the user to name the report
C. Enables the report to be used across projects
D. Enables the report to be used for different purposes
B. Enables the user to name the report
C. Enables the report to be used across projects
D. Enables the report to be used for different purposes
250: Using the Excel Macro, what type of data
can be imported into Quality Center? (Select three.)
A.
Defects data
B. Test set data
C. Test plan data
D. Releases data
E. Test Instance data
F. Requirements data
B. Test set data
C. Test plan data
D. Releases data
E. Test Instance data
F. Requirements data
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
241
|
A
|
242
|
C
|
243
|
B,F
|
244
|
C,D,F
|
245
|
D
|
246
|
D
|
247
|
B
|
248
|
D
|
249
|
D
|
250
|
A,C,F
|
251: Once the Word macro is installed on your
computer, what Quality Center toolbars will Word display?
A.
Test Plan, Requirements and Export
B. Requirements, Defects and Common
C. Test Plan, Requirements and Defects
D. Test Plan, Requirements and Common
B. Requirements, Defects and Common
C. Test Plan, Requirements and Defects
D. Test Plan, Requirements and Common
252: When a predefined report is saved, what
is the file extension?
A.
txt
B. xls
C. html
D. doc
B. xls
C. html
D. doc
253: Which modules in Quality Center provide
predefined graph templates?
A.
Requirements, Test Lab and Defects
B. Releases, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
C. Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
D. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan and Defects
B. Releases, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
C. Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
D. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan and Defects
254: How is data defined for use in an Excel
report?
A.
With an SQL query
B. With an XML query
C. With ETL data extraction
D. With a WebDataScraper
B. With an XML query
C. With ETL data extraction
D. With a WebDataScraper
255: On the General page of the Excel Report
Generator window, what name is displayed, by default, in the designer field?
A.
The project manager
B. The site administrator
C. The user currently logged in
D. The user who created the report
B. The site administrator
C. The user currently logged in
D. The user who created the report
256: Which menu allows you to generate a
predefined report?
A.
Help
B. Tools
C. Analysis
D. Favorites
B. Tools
C. Analysis
D. Favorites
257: What elements can be linked directly to a
requirement in the releases module?
A.
A cycle
B. Release tree
C. Cycle details
D. A cycle progress
B. Release tree
C. Cycle details
D. A cycle progress
258: Which module, in Quality Center, starts
the testing process?
A.
Defects
B. Releases
C. Dashboard
D. Requirements
B. Releases
C. Dashboard
D. Requirements
259: What details about a cycle can you define
in the details tab? (Select two.)
A.
Name
B. End date
C. Attachments
D. Release version
E. Linked test sets
B. End date
C. Attachments
D. Release version
E. Linked test sets
260: What constitutes a release folder?
A.
Cycles of the release
B. Test plan for the release
C. Releases of the application
D. Requirements for the release
B. Test plan for the release
C. Releases of the application
D. Requirements for the release
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
251
|
D
|
252
|
C
|
253
|
C
|
254
|
A
|
255
|
D
|
256
|
C
|
257
|
A
|
258
|
B
|
259
|
A,B
|
260
|
C
|
261: Why do you create a release tree?
A.
To define the framework of releases
B. To define the workflow for the project
C. To define the requirements hierarchy
D. To define the test plan for the release
B. To define the workflow for the project
C. To define the requirements hierarchy
D. To define the test plan for the release
262: How many buttons are available to create
a Release Tree?
A.
Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
263: What types of attachments can be added to
a cycle? (Select three.)
A.
Snapshot
B. Test plans
C. Clipboard image
D. Release versions
E. System properties
F. Linked requirements
B. Test plans
C. Clipboard image
D. Release versions
E. System properties
F. Linked requirements
264: Which module allows you to view coverage
by cycle?
A.
Cycle
B. Releases
C. Test Plan
D. Requirements
B. Releases
C. Test Plan
D. Requirements
265: What is the function of the New Release
button?
A.
Creates a release tree
B. Creates a cycle within a release
C. Creates a release within a release folder
D. Creates a new Release folder in the release tree
B. Creates a cycle within a release
C. Creates a release within a release folder
D. Creates a new Release folder in the release tree
266: What is the foundation of the Releases
module?
A.
The release tree
B. The cycle versions
C. The release cycles
D. The release folders
B. The cycle versions
C. The release cycles
D. The release folders
267: What is an example of an indicator column
in the Defect module?
A.
Status
B. Priority
C. Attachments
D. Reproducible
B. Priority
C. Attachments
D. Reproducible
268: Where can you find an audit trail of the
changes made to a defect?
A.
Audit tab in the Defect module
B. Status column in the defect grid
C. History tab in the Defect module
D. Summary column in the defect grid
B. Status column in the defect grid
C. History tab in the Defect module
D. Summary column in the defect grid
269: How can you save a filter that you set in
the Defect module?
A.
Choose Defects>Save
B. Click the Favorites button
C. Click the Save Filter button
D. Choose Favorites>Add to Favorites
B. Click the Favorites button
C. Click the Save Filter button
D. Choose Favorites>Add to Favorites
270: When defects are exported out of Quality
Center, what type of file is created?
A.
.xls
B. .doc
C. .mdb
D. .qcd
B. .doc
C. .mdb
D. .qcd
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
261
|
A
|
262
|
B
|
263
|
A,C,E
|
264
|
D
|
265
|
C
|
266
|
A
|
267
|
C
|
268
|
C
|
269
|
D
|
270
|
A
|
271: When should you use a private favorite
view for defects?
A.
Need one more
B. Use for private sessions of Quality Center
C. Use for data on which only you are working
D. Use for data on which your group is working
B. Use for private sessions of Quality Center
C. Use for data on which only you are working
D. Use for data on which your group is working
272: When you log a new defect, how is the
Detected By field populated?
A.
This field must be filled out as you log the defect
B. This field must be filled out after the defect is logged
C. This field is auto-populated with the user who is currently logged in
D. This field is auto-populated with the user who executed the linked test
B. This field must be filled out after the defect is logged
C. This field is auto-populated with the user who is currently logged in
D. This field is auto-populated with the user who executed the linked test
273: Which button or menu will allow you to
view additional fields in the Defects Grid?
A.
View button
B. Select>View menu
C. Favorites>View menu
D. Select Columns button
B. Select>View menu
C. Favorites>View menu
D. Select Columns button
274: How many defects can be associated with a
requirement?
A.
Any requirement can have one defect
B. Any requirement can have multiple defects
C. One for each parent requirement and child requirement
D. A parent requirement can be associated with multiple defects, but a child requirement can be associated with one
B. Any requirement can have multiple defects
C. One for each parent requirement and child requirement
D. A parent requirement can be associated with multiple defects, but a child requirement can be associated with one
275: What is tracked when a defect is assigned
a status?
A.
The defect's priority
B. The defect's severity
C. The defect's lifecycle
D. The users to whom the defect is assigned
B. The defect's severity
C. The defect's lifecycle
D. The users to whom the defect is assigned
276: How many views are available in the
Defects module?
A.
One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
277: What are some examples of entities that a
defect can be associated?
A.
Cycle, Release, Test Step, Defect
B. Release, Requirement, Test Set, Test Step
C. Requirement, Test Instance, Test Step, Defect
D. Requirement, Test Step, Test Run, Test Result
B. Release, Requirement, Test Set, Test Step
C. Requirement, Test Instance, Test Step, Defect
D. Requirement, Test Step, Test Run, Test Result
278: While running a manual test in the Manual
Runner, you log a defect against a specific step. Is that defect automatically
linked to any other entities?
A.
Yes, indirectly linked to the test instance
B. No, a defect can be linked to only one entity
C. No, all links to other entities must be done separately
D. Yes, directly to other defects linked to the test instance
B. No, a defect can be linked to only one entity
C. No, all links to other entities must be done separately
D. Yes, directly to other defects linked to the test instance
279: From which module or modules can you log
a defect?
A.
Defect
B. Requirement and Defect
C. Requirement, Test Plan and Defect
D. Requirement, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defect
B. Requirement and Defect
C. Requirement, Test Plan and Defect
D. Requirement, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defect
280: In the Defect module, what is a fixed
column?
A.
A column with a section list
B. A column with flexible values
C. A column that is non-scrolling
D. A column with a predetermined width
B. A column with flexible values
C. A column that is non-scrolling
D. A column with a predetermined width
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
271
|
C
|
272
|
C
|
273
|
D
|
274
|
B
|
275
|
C
|
276
|
A
|
277
|
C
|
278
|
A
|
279
|
D
|
280
|
C
|
281: When searching for Similar Defects, what
field or fields in each defect are searched?
A.
Name and history
B. Name and description
C. Summary and history
D. Summary and description
B. Name and description
C. Summary and history
D. Summary and description
282: Which statement best describes the requirements
traceability feature?
A.
Enables definition of a link between multiple requirements
B. Enables definition of a link between a requirement and a test
C. Enables definition of a link between a requirement and a cycle
D. Enables definition of a link between a requirement and a test set
B. Enables definition of a link between a requirement and a test
C. Enables definition of a link between a requirement and a cycle
D. Enables definition of a link between a requirement and a test set
283: When a requirement is assigned to a
release, in which cycles is it tested?
A.
All of the cycles
B. Only the first cycle
C. Only the last cycle
D. None of the cycles
B. Only the first cycle
C. Only the last cycle
D. None of the cycles
284: What is the purpose of requirements traceability?
A.
To view and establish Test coverage
B. To view cycles that are linked to the requirement
C. To view and establish linkage to other requirements
D. To view and establish what Releases are linked to the requirements
B. To view cycles that are linked to the requirement
C. To view and establish linkage to other requirements
D. To view and establish what Releases are linked to the requirements
285: What are some characteristics of a useful
Test Requirement? (Select two.)
A.
Vague
B. General
C. Familiar
D. Precise
E. Bounded
F. Ambiguous
B. General
C. Familiar
D. Precise
E. Bounded
F. Ambiguous
286: What does the requirements tree define?
A.
Hierarchical relationships between requirements
B. The number of test plans needed for each requirement
C. Identify defects that are associated with each requirement
D. Which releases and/or cycles are linked to each requirement
B. The number of test plans needed for each requirement
C. Identify defects that are associated with each requirement
D. Which releases and/or cycles are linked to each requirement
287: What feature does Quality Center use to
calculate the testing level for each requirement? (Select two.)
A.
Risk analysis
B. Impact analysis
C. Requirement type
D. Failure probability
E. Resource availability
B. Impact analysis
C. Requirement type
D. Failure probability
E. Resource availability
288: What are two steps in risk-based testing?
(Select two.)
A.
Perform risk analysis
B. Establish testing time
C. Perform impact analysis
D. Establish failure probability
E. Establish development time
F. Establish the number of testers needed
B. Establish testing time
C. Perform impact analysis
D. Establish failure probability
E. Establish development time
F. Establish the number of testers needed
289: If a child requirement is linked to a
test, what else is automatically linked to the test?
A.
The Release Cycle
B. The Parent Requirement
C. The Functional Requirement
D. The other child requirements
B. The Parent Requirement
C. The Functional Requirement
D. The other child requirements
290: What does the Direct Cover Status of a
requirement indicate?
A.
The type of parent requirement
B. The execution status of linked tests
C. The component of the application covered
D. Whether the requirement has any linked defects
B. The execution status of linked tests
C. The component of the application covered
D. Whether the requirement has any linked defects
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
281
|
D
|
282
|
A
|
283
|
A
|
284
|
C
|
285
|
D,E
|
286
|
A
|
287
|
C,E
|
288
|
A,D
|
289
|
B
|
290
|
B
|
291: What can you do under the RichContent tab
in the Requirements module?
A.
Add, view and edit RTF content
B. Add, view and edit MS Word content
C. Add, view and edit MS Excel content
D. Add, view and edit MS Access content
E. Add, view and edit SQL statement content
B. Add, view and edit MS Word content
C. Add, view and edit MS Excel content
D. Add, view and edit MS Access content
E. Add, view and edit SQL statement content
292: What is the Coverage Analysis View used
for in the Requirements module?
A.
To identify which test sets are associated with the requirement
B. To identify and analyze the tests that are associated with the requirement
C. To identify which releases and cycles are associated with the requirement
D. To identify and analyze which defects are associated with the requirement
B. To identify and analyze the tests that are associated with the requirement
C. To identify which releases and cycles are associated with the requirement
D. To identify and analyze which defects are associated with the requirement
293: What are some examples of the default
Quality Center requirement types? (Select three.)
A.
Child
B. Cycle
C. Parent
D. Testing
E. Business
F. Functional
B. Cycle
C. Parent
D. Testing
E. Business
F. Functional
294: What testing levels does Quality Center
define for risk-based testing? (Select two.)
A.
ALL
B. BASIC
C. NONE
D. UPPER
E. GROUP
F. FUNCTIONAL
B. BASIC
C. NONE
D. UPPER
E. GROUP
F. FUNCTIONAL
295: What additional Quality Center modules
may you have access to if installed and/or licensed? Select all that apply.
A.
Reports
B. Releases
C. Dashboard
D. Documents
E. Business components
B. Releases
C. Dashboard
D. Documents
E. Business components
296: What link do you click on to log on to
Quality Center 9.2?
A.
Add-Ins Page
B. Quality Center
C. Site Administrator
D. Authenticate User
B. Quality Center
C. Site Administrator
D. Authenticate User
297: What tools does Quality Center provide
for performing test data analysis? (Select two.)
A.
Linking
B. Graphs
C. Reports
D. Tracking
E. Traceability
B. Graphs
C. Reports
D. Tracking
E. Traceability
298: What can be accomplished using the Tools
Menu of the Common Toolbar? (Select two.)
A.
Define a cycle
B. Log a new defect
C. Switch to another project
D. Open the Documentation Library
E. Display the Quality Center version
B. Log a new defect
C. Switch to another project
D. Open the Documentation Library
E. Display the Quality Center version
299: Quality Center 9.2 provides what type of
repository for all testing assets?
A.
Database
B. File system
C. Web-based
D. Open access
B. File system
C. Web-based
D. Open access
300: Where is the common toolbar located?
A.
Lower-left part of the window
B. Upper-left part of the window
C. Upper-right part of the window
D. Lower-right part of the window
B. Upper-left part of the window
C. Upper-right part of the window
D. Lower-right part of the window
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
291
|
B
|
292
|
B
|
293
|
D,E,F
|
294
|
B,C
|
295
|
C,E
|
296
|
B
|
297
|
A,B
|
298
|
B,C
|
299
|
C
|
300
|
C
|
301: Which toolbar contains buttons for
frequently used commands in the current Quality Center module?
A.
Module Toolbar
B. Standard Toolbar
C. Common Toolbar
D. Formatting Toolbar
B. Standard Toolbar
C. Common Toolbar
D. Formatting Toolbar
302: How do you make a context-specific
shortcut menu appear?
A.
Right click on an interface element
B. Double click on the interface element
C. Choose Shortcut from the Help menu
D. Choose Context Menu from the View menu
B. Double click on the interface element
C. Choose Shortcut from the Help menu
D. Choose Context Menu from the View menu
303: What HP testing tools does Quality Center
integrate with? (Select two.)
A.
WinRunner
B. Open View
C. Visual API-XP
D. Performance Center
E. Change Control Management
B. Open View
C. Visual API-XP
D. Performance Center
E. Change Control Management
304: How many core modules are in Quality
Center 9.2?
A.
Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
305: In the Execution Flow tab of the Test Lab
module, what does a solid blue line between two tests indicate?
A.
The previous test must pass
B. The previous test must finish
C. The test has undefined parameters
D. The second test is called from within the first
B. The previous test must finish
C. The test has undefined parameters
D. The second test is called from within the first
306: When defining execution conditions in a
test set, what completion status choice or choices available?
A.
Finish
B. If/then
C. Pass and fail
D. Pass and finish
B. If/then
C. Pass and fail
D. Pass and finish
307: What must the goal of a test set meet?
A.
The goal of the test plan
B. The description of the test set
C. The description of the requirement
D. The goal of the associated cycle or cycles
B. The description of the test set
C. The description of the requirement
D. The goal of the associated cycle or cycles
308: Can a test set include both manual and
automated tests?
A.
No, a test set must be all manual tests
B. No, a test set must be all automated tests
C. Yes, however an automated test can not follow a manual test
D. Yes, automated and manual tests may be used in the same test set
B. No, a test set must be all automated tests
C. Yes, however an automated test can not follow a manual test
D. Yes, automated and manual tests may be used in the same test set
309: When developing a test plan, what should
the tester be careful about and plan for between tests?
A.
Execution time
B. Execution control
C. Automation timing
D. Data dependencies
B. Execution control
C. Automation timing
D. Data dependencies
310: How do you run an automated test
concurrently on multiple remote hosts in a test set?
A.
Run the test locally
B. Select a host group for the local machine
C. Select multiple hosts for the automated test
D. Add multiple instances of the test to the test set
B. Select a host group for the local machine
C. Select multiple hosts for the automated test
D. Add multiple instances of the test to the test set
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
301
|
A
|
302
|
A
|
303
|
A,C
|
304
|
C
|
305
|
B
|
306
|
D
|
307
|
D
|
308
|
D
|
309
|
D
|
310
|
D
|
311: Quality Center provides the framework for
test execution. What are the stages of this framework?
A.
Import requirements, import tests, run the tests
B. Link the tests to cycles, run the tests, log defects
C. Develop the test set tree, organize test sets, set test-set properties, run the tests
D. Convert the test plans to test sets, set the hosts for automated scripts, run the tests
B. Link the tests to cycles, run the tests, log defects
C. Develop the test set tree, organize test sets, set test-set properties, run the tests
D. Convert the test plans to test sets, set the hosts for automated scripts, run the tests
312: What are two elements of the Test Lab
module? (Select two.)
A.
Linked Cycles
B. Linked Defects
C. Execution Flow
D. Execution Results
E. Graph of Selected
F. Linked Requirements
B. Linked Defects
C. Execution Flow
D. Execution Results
E. Graph of Selected
F. Linked Requirements
313: What types of tests make up a test set?
A.
Smoke and integration
B. Smoke and automated
C. Integration and manual
D. Manual and automated
B. Smoke and automated
C. Integration and manual
D. Manual and automated
314: In executing a test, what do you link to
a test set?
A.
A cycle
B. A defect
C. An LOB
D. A release
B. A defect
C. An LOB
D. A release
315: At what level is a main test set tree
folder?
A.
Root
B. Main
C. Subject
D. Unattached
B. Main
C. Subject
D. Unattached
316: When a test set folder is linked to a
cycle, are all of the test sets in the folder linked to that cycle?
A.
No, only a test set can be linked to a cycle
B. No, a test set folder can only be linked to a release
C. Yes, all of the test sets in the folder will be linked to that cycle
D. Yes, all of the test sets in the folder will be linked to the cycle and all other cycles in that release
B. No, a test set folder can only be linked to a release
C. Yes, all of the test sets in the folder will be linked to that cycle
D. Yes, all of the test sets in the folder will be linked to the cycle and all other cycles in that release
317: What is a test set?
A.
A folder of test results
B. A folder of testing cycles
C. A group of tests to achieve a goal
D. A group of tests assigned to a release
B. A folder of testing cycles
C. A group of tests to achieve a goal
D. A group of tests assigned to a release
318: What choices are available in Test Set
Properties if any test fails?
A.
Rerun the test up to 5 times
B. Run the next Test Set, Do Nothing
C. Run cleanup test before each rerun of the test
D. Do Nothing, Stop the Test Run, Rerun the Test Set
B. Run the next Test Set, Do Nothing
C. Run cleanup test before each rerun of the test
D. Do Nothing, Stop the Test Run, Rerun the Test Set
319: While defining a test set, you want to
notify your Project Manager if the permission levels on the testing box are
inadequate. What is the best way to accomplish this?
A.
Select inadequate in the permissions field
B. Ensure that the correct alert rule is in effect
C. Check the appropriate checkbox in Test Set Properties>Notifications
D. Email test results to the Project Manager at the completion of the test set
B. Ensure that the correct alert rule is in effect
C. Check the appropriate checkbox in Test Set Properties>Notifications
D. Email test results to the Project Manager at the completion of the test set
320: When designing a test, which practice
would you consider is most integral in determining test success?
A.
Write test steps in the active voice.
B. Verify the version of the application is working.
C. Validate that the fields indicated in the test exist.
D. Specify the pass and fail conditions and expected results
B. Verify the version of the application is working.
C. Validate that the fields indicated in the test exist.
D. Specify the pass and fail conditions and expected results
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
311
|
C
|
312
|
B,C
|
313
|
D
|
314
|
A
|
315
|
A
|
316
|
C
|
317
|
C
|
318
|
D
|
319
|
C
|
320
|
D
|
321: In designing a test, where can you
specify parameters. Select two.
A.
Call to Test
B. Test Name
C. Step Name
D. Description
E. Expected Result
B. Test Name
C. Step Name
D. Description
E. Expected Result
322: When converting requirements to tests, to
what can a requirement be converted?
A.
A Subject Folder, a Test or a Test Set
B. A Subject Folder, a Test or a Design Step
C. A Test, a Business Component or a Design Step
D. A Subject Folder, a Business Component or a Design Step
B. A Subject Folder, a Test or a Design Step
C. A Test, a Business Component or a Design Step
D. A Subject Folder, a Business Component or a Design Step
323: At what step in the quality management
process would you analyze the impact of changes in requirements?
A.
After test execution
B. After requirements traceability
C. After defects have status "Closed"
D. After new requirements are added
B. After requirements traceability
C. After defects have status "Closed"
D. After new requirements are added
324: To run a test set at a remote location,
what setting in Quality Center 9.2 would you configure?
A.
Run All
B. Enable Log
C. Run on Host
D. Run All Tests Locally
B. Enable Log
C. Run on Host
D. Run All Tests Locally
325: In the Execution Flow tab, which
Execution Conditions can be indicated by arrows between tests? Select two.
A.
Failed
B. Passed
C. Finished
D. Not Completed
B. Passed
C. Finished
D. Not Completed
326: Which tool forces manual tests to run in
a specific order?
A.
Manual Runner
B. Generate Script
C. Automated Runner
D. Test Set Properties
B. Generate Script
C. Automated Runner
D. Test Set Properties
327: A manual test started but did not
complete the test run. Which feature will allow you to proceed with the test
run?
A.
Cancel Run
B. Run Manually
C. Repeat Begin Run
D. Continue Manual Run
B. Run Manually
C. Repeat Begin Run
D. Continue Manual Run
328: What Execution Conditions are supported
in Test Set Execution Flow tab?
A.
Done or Failed
B. Done or Passed
C. Passed or Failed
D. Finished or Passed
B. Done or Passed
C. Passed or Failed
D. Finished or Passed
329: Which steps must you perform when
developing a test set tree? Select two.
A.
Create test set folders.
B. Schedule execution date and time.
C. Link test sets to releases and cycles.
D. Populate the test set folders with tests.
E. Define test run sequence and conditions.
B. Schedule execution date and time.
C. Link test sets to releases and cycles.
D. Populate the test set folders with tests.
E. Define test run sequence and conditions.
330: In the Test Lab module, which tab allows
you to define a time when Tests will execute?
A.
Execution Grid
B. Linked Defects
C. Execution Flow
D. Test Set Properties
B. Linked Defects
C. Execution Flow
D. Test Set Properties
uestion No.
|
Correct Answer
|
321
|
D,E
|
322
|
B
|
323
|
B
|
324
|
C
|
325
|
B,C
|
326
|
C
|
327
|
D
|
328
|
D
|
329
|
A,D
|
330
|
C
|
331: In the Test Plan Tree, which basic test
information is required to create a new test? Select two.
A.
Level
B. Priority
C. Template
D. Test Type
E. Test Name
B. Priority
C. Template
D. Test Type
E. Test Name
332: Which Test Lab feature displays tests in
a diagram for easy sequencing and scheduling?
A.
Execution Grid
B. Test Plan Tree
C. Linked Defects
D. Execution Flow
B. Test Plan Tree
C. Linked Defects
D. Execution Flow
333: A test set could not execute due to
remote connectivity issues. The QA manager would like to receive an email
update when the test execution halts. Which notification setting would you
select?
A.
On Failure
B. Environmental failure
C. Any test in the Automatic Runner with status "Failure"
D. All tests in the Automatic Runner that were run have finished
B. Environmental failure
C. Any test in the Automatic Runner with status "Failure"
D. All tests in the Automatic Runner that were run have finished
334: Which action is required in order to
execute an automated test in Quality Center 9.2?
A.
Have design steps defined
B. Have the tester field defined
C. Set the design status to Ready
D. Be a member of at least one test set
B. Have the tester field defined
C. Set the design status to Ready
D. Be a member of at least one test set
335: In the Test Lab module, to which entity
can you assign a Cycle?
A.
Run
B. Test Set
C. Test Instance
D. Test Set Folder
B. Test Set
C. Test Instance
D. Test Set Folder
336: What options are available to users in
the Quality Center Tools menu? Select two.
A.
Log out
B. Add users
C. New defects
D. Change projects
E. Change passwords
B. Add users
C. New defects
D. Change projects
E. Change passwords
337: Which module allows you to run tests on
an application and analyze results?
A.
Test Set
B. Test Lab
C. Test Plan
D. Test Execution
B. Test Lab
C. Test Plan
D. Test Execution
338: Which add-ins allow you to export tests,
requirements and defects from a third-party application to Quality Center?
Select two.
A.
BPT add-in
B. QTP add-in
C. Excel add-in
D. Word add-in
B. QTP add-in
C. Excel add-in
D. Word add-in
339: From which menu command would you execute
an export of data from Excel to Quality Center?
A.
Excel > Data > Export
B. Quality Center > Add-Ins page
C. Excel > Tools > Export to Quality Center
D. Quality Center > Tools > Excel Report Generator
B. Quality Center > Add-Ins page
C. Excel > Tools > Export to Quality Center
D. Quality Center > Tools > Excel Report Generator
340: What are the key pointers for defining
tests?
A.
Economical, Unique, Graphic, Clear, Traceable
B. Generalized, Unique, Reasonable, Graphic, Definite
C. Accurate, Economical, Consistent, Appropriate, Traceable
D. Consistent, Well Written, Generalized, Ambiguous, Appropriate
B. Generalized, Unique, Reasonable, Graphic, Definite
C. Accurate, Economical, Consistent, Appropriate, Traceable
D. Consistent, Well Written, Generalized, Ambiguous, Appropriate
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
331
|
D,E
|
332
|
D
|
333
|
B
|
334
|
D
|
335
|
D
|
336
|
C,D
|
337
|
B
|
338
|
C,D
|
339
|
C
|
340
|
C
|
341: Which statements about linking defects
are true? Select two.
A.
Linking defects enables you to link only one entity of any type to one defect.
B. Linking defects enables you to use History to search for defects with no known links.
C. Linking defects enables you to link multiple entities of the same type to the same defect.
D. Linking defects enables you to search defects that are related to specific Quality Center entities.
B. Linking defects enables you to use History to search for defects with no known links.
C. Linking defects enables you to link multiple entities of the same type to the same defect.
D. Linking defects enables you to search defects that are related to specific Quality Center entities.
342: Which entity cannot be associated with a
defect?
A.
Test
B. Run
C. Cycle
D. Defect
B. Run
C. Cycle
D. Defect
343: What is tracked by the defect's lifecycle
in Quality Center?
A.
The defects status
B. The defects priority
C. The defects severity
D. The defect's assigned users
B. The defects priority
C. The defects severity
D. The defect's assigned users
344: Which defect status indicates that a
defect is ready to be retested?
A.
New
B. Fixed
C. Open
D. Reopen
B. Fixed
C. Open
D. Reopen
345: A defect has been logged for a test in a
test set, which has been removed from the Test Lab module. Which association
remains for the defect?
A.
The original test in the Test Plan module
B. The original cycle in the Releases module
C. The original release in the Releases module
D. The original requirement in the Requirements module
B. The original cycle in the Releases module
C. The original release in the Releases module
D. The original requirement in the Requirements module
346: Which feature allows you to view the
order of changes made to a defect?
A.
History
B. Details
C. Others
D. Update
B. Details
C. Others
D. Update
347: What types of graphs can be generated in
the Test Plan Module under the Live Analysis tab? Select three.
A.
Trend
B. Progress
C. Summary
D. Time Interval
E. Execution Status
B. Progress
C. Summary
D. Time Interval
E. Execution Status
348: Which statement is correct about
associating defects?
A.
Test runs are performed on open and reopened defects.
B. If a requirement has not been met, a defect is not reported for a test run.
C. When a defect is logged for a test instance, it is automatically logged for a test.
D. To remove a defect-test relationship, remove the defect-test instance relationship.
B. If a requirement has not been met, a defect is not reported for a test run.
C. When a defect is logged for a test instance, it is automatically logged for a test.
D. To remove a defect-test relationship, remove the defect-test instance relationship.
349: What entities can a defect be directly
associated with in Quality Center 9.2? Select two.
A.
A cycle
B. Release
C. Test result
D. Attachment
E. Test instance
B. Release
C. Test result
D. Attachment
E. Test instance
350: Which command will you use to save your
search settings and filter criteria?
A.
Group By...
B. View Settings...
C. Save Settings...
D. Add to Favorites...
B. View Settings...
C. Save Settings...
D. Add to Favorites...
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
341
|
C,D
|
342
|
C
|
343
|
A
|
344
|
B
|
345
|
A
|
346
|
A
|
347
|
A,B,C
|
348
|
C
|
349
|
C,E
|
350
|
D
|
351: Which statement best describes Quality
Center software?
A.
It is a Web-based database used to organize and identify configuration items of
the testing project.
B.
It is a GUI-based functional testing tool used to organize, create, and enhance
the testing process.
C.
It is a Web-based test management tool used to structure, organize and document
phases of the testing project.
D.
It is a Web-based application used to govern the entire portfolio of IT
projects, applications and opportunities in real-time.
352: In the test management process within
Quality Center, in which phase can traceability links be added?
A.
Track Defects
B. Execute Tests
C. Define Release
D. Define Requirements
E. Develop the Test Plan
B. Execute Tests
C. Define Release
D. Define Requirements
E. Develop the Test Plan
353: Which elements of the Release module can
be linked directly to a requirement from the Requirements module? Select two.
A.
A cycle
B. Cycle details
C. A release
D. A cycles progress
B. Cycle details
C. A release
D. A cycles progress
354: In Quality Center, what is meant by the
term "release"?
A.
It is a subset of the new features implemented in an application that has
undergone a series of test cycles.
B.
It is a set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature
functionality, security and performance.
C.
It is a group of test cycles that have been completed within a specific time
period and all the high priority defects closed.
D.
It is a version of an application representing a group of changes that is
available for distribution to customers at the same time.
355: Which statement best describes the
Releases folder in the Release module?
A.
It is a predefined folder that can be deleted.
B. It is a predefined folder that cannot be deleted.
C. It is a folder that you can add but not delete once it is added.
D. It is a folder that you can add and delete as part of the Release tree.
B. It is a predefined folder that cannot be deleted.
C. It is a folder that you can add but not delete once it is added.
D. It is a folder that you can add and delete as part of the Release tree.
356: In Quality Center 9.2, what is typically
referred to as a version of an application containing a group of changes that
is distributed to customers at the same time?
A.
Release
B. Specifications
C. Requirements
D. Line of Business
B. Specifications
C. Requirements
D. Line of Business
357: By default, which action can you perform
on the predefined RELEASES folder?
A.
You can delete or rename according to your requirement and add releases to it.
B. You can only rename according to your requirement; you cannot delete or add to it.
C. You can rename according to your requirement and add releases to it; you cannot delete it.
D. You can only add releases to it; you cannot delete or rename according to your requirement.
B. You can only rename according to your requirement; you cannot delete or add to it.
C. You can rename according to your requirement and add releases to it; you cannot delete it.
D. You can only add releases to it; you cannot delete or rename according to your requirement.
358: Which statement is correct about tying a
requirement to a cycle in Quality Center, and releasing it?
A.
The requirement is automatically tied to the release
B. You are manually tying the requirement to the release
C. You have to manually link the requirement to each cycle to release it
D. The requirement is automatically tied to all the cycles within the release
B. You are manually tying the requirement to the release
C. You have to manually link the requirement to each cycle to release it
D. The requirement is automatically tied to all the cycles within the release
359: Which statement is true about releases in
Quality Center 9.2?
A.
Releases have one-to-one correspondence with a testing cycle.
B. An alpha release can occur with seventy-five percent release cycle progress.
C. A release's start and end date must encompass all cycles within that release.
D. The release process begins by approving the requirements in the Requirements module.
B. An alpha release can occur with seventy-five percent release cycle progress.
C. A release's start and end date must encompass all cycles within that release.
D. The release process begins by approving the requirements in the Requirements module.
360: What is the sequence of command used to
copy a cycle?
A.
Right click on the Cycle name and select Repeat cycle
B. Right click on the Release name and select Copy cycle
C. Right click on the Cycle name and select Duplicate cycle
D. Right click on the Release name and select Recreate cycle
B. Right click on the Release name and select Copy cycle
C. Right click on the Cycle name and select Duplicate cycle
D. Right click on the Release name and select Recreate cycle
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
351
|
C
|
352
|
D
|
353
|
A,C
|
354
|
D
|
355
|
B
|
356
|
A
|
357
|
C
|
358
|
D
|
359
|
C
|
360
|
C
|
361: What are the default requirement types
within Quality Center 9.2?
A.
System, Group, Testing, Functional, Unknown, and User
B. Business, Folder, Functional, Group, Testing, and Undefined
C. Functional, Business, Group, Undefined, System, and Internal
D. Functional, System, Undefined, Testing, Folder, and Unknown
B. Business, Folder, Functional, Group, Testing, and Undefined
C. Functional, Business, Group, Undefined, System, and Internal
D. Functional, System, Undefined, Testing, Folder, and Unknown
362: Which are some of the advantages of
defining test requirements clearly and correctly at the beginning of a project?
Select three.
A.
It helps prevent scope creep.
B. It aids development and testing.
C. It is used as code-base definition.
D. It sets clear expectations between teams.
E. It reduces planning for the infrastructure architecture. .
B. It aids development and testing.
C. It is used as code-base definition.
D. It sets clear expectations between teams.
E. It reduces planning for the infrastructure architecture. .
363: After defining a manual test, which
component do you use to add the step details of the test?
A.
Detail Editor
B. Script Editor
C. Design Test Editor
D. Design Step Editor
B. Script Editor
C. Design Test Editor
D. Design Step Editor
364: Which reports come pre-configured in the
Requirements module? Select three.
A.
Traced from Requirements
B. Standard Requirements Report
C. Requirements with Linked Bugs
D. Requirements with Pass Status
E. Requirements with Coverage Tests
B. Standard Requirements Report
C. Requirements with Linked Bugs
D. Requirements with Pass Status
E. Requirements with Coverage Tests
365: Which statement best describes a
requirement?
A.
A requirement links the defects found in the application.
B. A requirement provides the timeline of the testing process.
C. A requirement maps the coverage of tests to be performed.
D. A requirement details what needs to be tested in an application.
B. A requirement provides the timeline of the testing process.
C. A requirement maps the coverage of tests to be performed.
D. A requirement details what needs to be tested in an application.
366: Which sub-tabs does the Requirements
Traceability tab contain?
A.
Relationships and Impact Analysis
B. Relationships and Traceability Links
C. Impact Analysis and Traceability Links
D. Traceability Relationships and Analysis
B. Relationships and Traceability Links
C. Impact Analysis and Traceability Links
D. Traceability Relationships and Analysis
367: In relationships between modules in
Quality Center 9.2, which statement is true?
A.
You are not required to use the Release module in order to use the Requirements
Module.
B.
You must use the Test Lab module in order to establish linkage between a defect
and a requirement.
C.
If you want defects linked to test runs, you must log them via the Test Lab
module at test execution time.
D.
You are required to set up testing requirements in the Requirements Module
before you can use the Test Plan module.
368: When tying a requirement to a cycle, to
what else is it automatically tied?
A.
To the release of the cycle
B. To other cycles within the release
C. To other requirements within the cycle
D. To other requirements within the release
B. To other cycles within the release
C. To other requirements within the cycle
D. To other requirements within the release
369: Which command is used to create an
automated test from an existing manual test?
A.
Generate Test
B. Automate Test
C. Generate Script
D. Automate Script
B. Automate Test
C. Generate Script
D. Automate Script
370: What does the Direct Cover Status field
represent?
A.
Has the requirement been linked to a test set, and if so, what tests are
included?
B.
Has the requirement been linked to a cycle, and if so, what is the status of
the cycle?
C.
Has the requirement been linked to a defect, and if so, what is the status of
the defect?
D.
Has the requirement been linked to a test, and if so, what is the status of the
test's execution?
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
361
|
B
|
362
|
A,B,D
|
363
|
D
|
364
|
B,C,E
|
365
|
D
|
366
|
A
|
367
|
A
|
368
|
A
|
369
|
C
|
370
|
D
|
371: What does the Direct Cover Status of a
requirement indicate?
A.
The type of parent requirement
B. The execution status of linked tests
C. The component of the application covered
D. Whether the requirement has any linked defects
B. The execution status of linked tests
C. The component of the application covered
D. Whether the requirement has any linked defects
372: Which command would you use to modify
report settings of Analysis reports?
A.
Generate Report
B. Add to Favorites
C. Save Report Settings
D. Configure Report and Sub-reports
B. Add to Favorites
C. Save Report Settings
D. Configure Report and Sub-reports
373: Using the Excel add-in, what type of data
can be exported to Quality Center? (Select three.)
A.
Tests
B. Test set
C. Defects
D. Releases
E. Test instance
F. Requirements
B. Test set
C. Defects
D. Releases
E. Test instance
F. Requirements
374: Which standard graph is specific to the
Requirements module?
A.
Tabular
B. Standard Requirements
C. Requirements Summary
D. Requirements Coverage
B. Standard Requirements
C. Requirements Summary
D. Requirements Coverage
375: When you generate an Excel report, what
is an advantage of using parameters?
A.
It enables the report to be saved.
B. It enables the user to name the report.
C. It enables the report to be used across projects.
D. It enables the report to be used for different purposes.
B. It enables the user to name the report.
C. It enables the report to be used across projects.
D. It enables the report to be used for different purposes.
376: In the Test Plan module, which tab has
the option of converting a Manual test to an Automated test?
A.
Details
B. Test Script
C. Design Steps
D. Req Coverage
B. Test Script
C. Design Steps
D. Req Coverage
377: Which tool will you use to generate a
comprehensive report of your project documentation?
A.
Live Analysis
B. Microsoft Word
C. Document Generator
D. Excel Report Generator
B. Microsoft Word
C. Document Generator
D. Excel Report Generator
378: Which predefined graphs are available in
the Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects modules?
A.
Age and summary
B. Trend and progress
C. Summary and progress
D. Requirements, coverage and age
B. Trend and progress
C. Summary and progress
D. Requirements, coverage and age
379: Which Quality Center option enables you
to generate graphs?
A.
Help menu
B. Tools menu
C. Analysis menu
D. Common menu
B. Tools menu
C. Analysis menu
D. Common menu
380: Once the Microsoft Word add-in is
installed on your computer, what Quality Center toolbars will Word display?
A.
Test Plan, Requirements and Export
B. Requirements, Defects and Common
C. Test Plan, Requirements and Defects
D. Test Plan, Requirements and Common
B. Requirements, Defects and Common
C. Test Plan, Requirements and Defects
D. Test Plan, Requirements and Common
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
371
|
B
|
372
|
D
|
373
|
A,C,F
|
374
|
D
|
375
|
D
|
376
|
C
|
377
|
C
|
378
|
C
|
379
|
C
|
380
|
D
|
381: If the QA manager would like to know how
the testing process is going with respect to a release cycle, which graph would
best serve the requirement?
A.
Trend graph
B. Progress graph
C. Summary graph
D. Live Coverage graph
B. Progress graph
C. Summary graph
D. Live Coverage graph
382: If the QA manager would like to see an
overview of status of the tests within folder in the Test Plan Tree, which
graph would you generate?
A.
Live Analysis
B. Defect Age Graph
C. Coverage Analysis
D. Test Plan Summary
B. Defect Age Graph
C. Coverage Analysis
D. Test Plan Summary
383: Which standard graph is specific to the
Defects module?
A.
History graph
B. Defects Age graph
C. Defects Coverage graph
D. Fixed or Rejected Defects graph
B. Defects Age graph
C. Defects Coverage graph
D. Fixed or Rejected Defects graph
384: When a predefined report is saved, what
are the file extensions allowed? Select two.
A.
.txt
B. .xls
C. .html
D. .doc
B. .xls
C. .html
D. .doc
385: What are template tests?
A.
Test designs that contain steps and parameters that are generally reusable
across different tests
B.
Small automation units taking the form of QTP reusable Actions which accept
input from the tester via parameters
C.
Tests, where key fields like Description, Tester, and Status have been pre-set,
and can be copied and pasted to form the basis of new tests
D.
Pre-configured Design Steps views that let testers add new columns beyond just
the standard Step, Actual Result, and Expected Result columns
386: Which modules in Quality Center provide
predefined graph templates?
A.
Releases, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
B. Cycles, Requirements, Test Lab and Defects
C. Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
D. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan and Defects
B. Cycles, Requirements, Test Lab and Defects
C. Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
D. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan and Defects
387: By default, Quality Center sends e-mail
in HTML format. To send e-mail as plain text instead, edit the parameter in the
Site Configuration tab in Site Administration
A.
M_FORMAT
B. MAIL_FORMAT_ID
C. MAIL_FORM
D. MAIL_FORMAT
B. MAIL_FORMAT_ID
C. MAIL_FORM
D. MAIL_FORMAT
388: You use the _________ pages to specify
the information from the test plan tree view of the Test Plan module that should
appear in the project document.
A.
Subject Tree
B. Subject Tests
C. Subject plans
D. Both A & B
B. Subject Tests
C. Subject plans
D. Both A & B
389: Performing a risk-based quality
management analysis for an analysis requirement involves the following steps
A.
Determine Risk groups, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy,
Analyze Testing Strategy
B.
Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing guidelines Settings, Finalize Testing
Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
C.
Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing
guidelines, Analyze Testing Strategy
D.
Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing
Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
390: You can define the number of views
displayed on the menu by setting the ________ parameter in the Site
Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A.
Favorites
B. Favorites_Depth
C. Favorites_view
D. Favorites_Path
B. Favorites_Depth
C. Favorites_view
D. Favorites_Path
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
381
|
B
|
382
|
A
|
383
|
B
|
384
|
A,C
|
385
|
A
|
386
|
C
|
387
|
A
|
388
|
D
|
389
|
D
|
390
|
D
|
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