Q. 1:
You can manage the test actions and the test or function library steps using
the _________ menu commands
A.
File
B. Edit
C.
Automation
D. Tools
Q. 2:
To expand all the steps in the keyword view which option you would use from the
View menu.
A.
Expand
B.
Expand All
C.
Expand Items
D.
Expand Rows
Q. 3:
What is the shortcut key to open a Step Generator?
A.
F2
B. F5
C. F6
D. F7
Q. 4:
Function Definition Generator in found in which menu option.
A.
File
B. Tools
C.
Insert
D. View
Q. 5:
The shortcut keys for Record, Stop and Run respectively are
A.
F3, F4, F5
B. F4,
F3, F5
C. F4,
F5, F3
D. F3,
F5, F4
Q. 6:
What is the shortcut key for opening an Object Repository?
A.
Alt+R
B.
Shift+R
C.
Ctrl+R
D.
Shift+O+R
Q. 7:
Shortcut key to Insert/Remove a breakpoint is
A.
F9
B. F8
C.
Ctrl+b
D.
Shift+b
Q. 8:
The __________ runs only the current line of the script. If the current line
calls a method, the method is displayed in the view but is not performed.
A.
Step over
B. Step
out
C. Step
into
D. Step
Till
Q. 9:
The ________ runs only the current line of the script. When the current line
calls a method, the method is performed in its entirety, but is not displayed
in the view.
A.
Step Over
B. Step
Out
C. Step
Into
D. Step
Till
Q.
10: What is the shortcut key to clear all Breakpoints?
A.
Ctrl+Shift+F9
B.
Shift+Ctrl+F9
C.
Alt+Shift+F9
D.
Alt+Ctrl+F9
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Q.
11: Using the Object Spy, you can view
A.
The run-time or test object properties and methods of any object in an open application.
B. The run-time or test object properties of any object in an open application.
C. The test object properties and methods of any object in an open application.
D. The run-time object properties and methods of any object in an open application.
B. The run-time or test object properties of any object in an open application.
C. The test object properties and methods of any object in an open application.
D. The run-time object properties and methods of any object in an open application.
Q.
12: There are ________ object type filters in Object spy dialog box.
A.
Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Q.
13: In the Object Spy window, in the Properties Tab
A.
Copying of Properties and its values is possible with CTRL+C
B. Copying of Properties and its values is possible by right clicking on it and choosing copy.
C. Copying of Properties and its values is possible with both A. and B. methods
D. Copying of Properties and its values is possible is not possible
B. Copying of Properties and its values is possible by right clicking on it and choosing copy.
C. Copying of Properties and its values is possible with both A. and B. methods
D. Copying of Properties and its values is possible is not possible
Q.
14: In the Object Spy window, in the methods Tab
A.
Copying of Methods is possible with CTRL+C
B. Copying of Methods is possible by right clicking on it and choosing copy.
C. Copying of Methods is possible with both A. and B. methods
D. Copying of Methods is possible is not possible
B. Copying of Methods is possible by right clicking on it and choosing copy.
C. Copying of Methods is possible with both A. and B. methods
D. Copying of Methods is possible is not possible
Q.
15: Object Spy dialog box
A.
Can be resized
B. Cannot be resized
B. Cannot be resized
Q.
16: The ___________ are the highest level of the test hierarchy in the Keyword
view.
A. Tests
B. Steps
A. Tests
B. Steps
C. Call
to Actions
D.
Actions
Q.
17: You can copy and paste or drag and drop actions to move them to a different
location within a test
A.
True
B. False
Q.
18: You can print the contents of the Keyword View to your Windows default
printer (and even preview the contents prior to printing.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
19: In the Keyword View, you can also view properties for items such as
checkpoints.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
20: In the step Browser > Page > Edit > Set "Genius",
identify container object(s)
A.
Browser
B. Edit
C. Page
D. Both
Browser & Page
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Q.
21: Object Spy can be found in __________ menu.
A.
Tool
B. Tools
C. Task
D. Tasks
Q.
22: The ________________ displays the open documents side-by-side.
A.
Tile Vertically
B. Tile
Horizontally
C.
Cascade
D. Tile
Cascade
Q.
23: For opening the Quick Test Professional Help we can use _________
A.
F3
B. F5
C. F1
D. F2
Q.
24: If QTP cannot find any object that matches the description, or if it finds
more than one object that matches, QuickTest may use the ___________________
mechanism to identify the object.
A.
Ordinal Identifier
B. Index
Identifier
C. Smart
Identification
D.
Assistive Identification
Q.
25: You can configure the _________ and ___________.properties that QuickTest
uses to record descriptions of the objects in your application
A.
Mandatory, assistive, and ordinal identifier
B. Mandatory, required, and ordinal identifier
C. Smart, assistive, and ordinal identifier
D. Index, assistive, and ordinal identifier
B. Mandatory, required, and ordinal identifier
C. Smart, assistive, and ordinal identifier
D. Index, assistive, and ordinal identifier
Q.
26: The ___________ property set for each test object is created and maintained
by QuickTest.
A.
Run-Time Object
B. Test Object
B. Test Object
C. Smart
Identification Object
D. Assistive Object
D. Assistive Object
Q.
27: You can access and perform ______________ methods using the Object
property.
A.
Run-Time Object
B. Test
Object
C. Smart
Identification Object
D.
Assistive Object
Q.
28: You can view or modify the test object property values that are stored with
your test in the _______________
A.
Information Pane
B. Data Table
C. Information Pane & Data Table Both
D. Object Properties & Object Repository dialog box.
B. Data Table
C. Information Pane & Data Table Both
D. Object Properties & Object Repository dialog box.
Q.
29: You can retrieve or modify property values of the test object during the
run session by adding _______________ statements in the Keyword View or Expert
View.
A.
GetROProperty & SetROProperty
B. GetTOProperty & SetTOProperty
C. GetTOProperty & SetROProperty
B. GetTOProperty & SetTOProperty
C. GetTOProperty & SetROProperty
D.
GetROProperty & SetTOProperty
Q.
30: If the available test object methods or properties for an object do not
provide the functionality you need, you can access ______________ of any
run-time object using the Object property.
A.
The internal methods and properties
B. The mandatory methods and properties
C. The selective methods and properties
D. The assistive methods and properties
B. The mandatory methods and properties
C. The selective methods and properties
D. The assistive methods and properties
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Q.
31: The Information pane provides a list of _________ in the test:
A.
Semantic errors
B. Syntax errors
C. Common errors
D. Logic errors
Q. 32: When we switch from Expert view to the Keyword view, QTP automatically checks for syntax errors in the test and shows them in the information pane.
A. True
B. False
Q.33: If the information pane is not open, QTP automatically opens it in case a syntax error is detected.
A. True
B. False
B. Syntax errors
C. Common errors
D. Logic errors
Q. 32: When we switch from Expert view to the Keyword view, QTP automatically checks for syntax errors in the test and shows them in the information pane.
A. True
B. False
Q.33: If the information pane is not open, QTP automatically opens it in case a syntax error is detected.
A. True
B. False
Q.
34: The __________ provides a list of the resources that are specified in your
test but cannot be found.
A. Missing pane
B. Missing Resources pane
A. Missing pane
B. Missing Resources pane
C.
Resources pane
D. Missing Items pane
Q. 35: Whenever you open a test or a function library, QTP automatically checks for the availability of specified resources.
A. True
B. False
Q. 36: The Data Table does not assist you in parameterize your test.
D. Missing Items pane
Q. 35: Whenever you open a test or a function library, QTP automatically checks for the availability of specified resources.
A. True
B. False
Q. 36: The Data Table does not assist you in parameterize your test.
A.
True
B. False
B. False
Q.
37: Tabs in the Debug Viewer pane are:
A. Watch, Variables, Debug
B. Watch, Data, Command
C. Watch, Variables, Command
A. Watch, Variables, Debug
B. Watch, Data, Command
C. Watch, Variables, Command
D. View,
Variables, Command
Q. 38: The ________ tab enables you to view the current value of any variable or VBScript expression.
A. Watch
Q. 38: The ________ tab enables you to view the current value of any variable or VBScript expression.
A. Watch
B.
View
C. Locate
C. Locate
D. Current
Q. 39:
The _________ tab displays the current value of all variables that have been
recognized up to the last step performed in the run session.
A. View
B. Variables
A. View
B. Variables
C.
Locate
D. Current
Q. 40: The___________ tab enables you to run a line of script to set or modify the current value of a variable or VBScript object in your test or function library.
A. View
B. Variables
C. Command
D. Current
D. Current
Q. 40: The___________ tab enables you to run a line of script to set or modify the current value of a variable or VBScript object in your test or function library.
A. View
B. Variables
C. Command
D. Current
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Q.
41: QuickTest processes comments when it runs a test.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
42: Press __________ to add a new step below the currently selected step.
A.
F8
B. Shift
+
A
C.
F0
D. Shift
+ A + Q
Q.
43: While working with the Keyword View, you can _________ steps to move them
to a different location in a test or in an action
A. Copy
and Paste
B. Cut
and Paste
C. Drag
and drop
D. Both
A. and C.
Q.
44: You can specify the order in which the columns are displayed in the Keyword
view.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
45: You can view _________ while working with keyword view.
A.
Object
properties
B.
Action
properties
C.
Action call properties
D. Checkpoint properties
D. Checkpoint properties
E.
Output value properties
F. None of the above
F. None of the above
G. All
of above
Q.
46: You cannot manage some aspects of a local object repository using the
QuickTest Object Repository automation object model.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
47: For each action, you can use a combination of objects from your local and
shared object repositories.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
48: QuickTest adds all new objects to the local object repository even if one
or more shared object repositories are already associated with the action
assuming that an object with the same description does not already exist in one
of the associated shared object repositories.
A.
True B.
False
Q.
49: If a child object is added to a local object repository, and its parents
are in a shared object repository, then you have to manually drag and drop its
parent objects from shared object repository to local object repository.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
50: The ________ is not accessible as a separate file
A.
Local object
repository
B.
Shared object repository
C. Both
C. Both
D. None
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A
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A
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B
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Q.
51: You can use the Keyword View to add a step ___________ in your test.
A.
At the end
B. Below
the currently selected step
C. At the beginning
C. At the beginning
D. At
any point
Q.
52: The Documentation cell is ___________.
A.
Read-only
B.
Write-only
C. Read
and Write
D. Read
write & execute
Q.
53: An Item column can be any of the following:
A.
A test object
B. A
statement like Dim
C. A step generated by step generator
C. A step generated by step generator
D. All
of above
Q.
54: The Operation cell in the keyword view specifies the operation to be
performed on the item listed in the ___________ Column.
A.
Operation
B.
Documentation
C. Item
D. Value
Q.
55: Even if the Item column in the Keyword View is displayed to the right of
the Operation column, you must still first select an item to view the list of
available operations in the Operation column.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
56: The Value cell in the keyword view can contain ___________ Value
A.
Constant
B.
Parameter
C. Both
A. & B.
D. None
of these
Q.
57: The ______________ enables you to encode your passwords and place secure
values into the Data Table.
A.
Password Encoder
B.
Password Decoder
C. Password Encode
C. Password Encode
D.
Password Decode
Q.
58: You can also encrypt strings in Data Table cells using the _____________
option in the Data Table menu.
A.
Decrypt
B.
Encrypt
C.
Encrypt Code
D.
Decrypt Code
Q.
59: In addition to adding standard statement steps to your test using the
Keyword View, you can also insert
A. Checkpoint step
A. Checkpoint step
B.
Output value step
C.
Comment step
D. All
of above
Q.
60: The correct syntax of the conditional statement starting with Do is
________
A.
Do
While
B. Do
Until
C. Do
Next
D. Both
A. and B.
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D
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A
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B
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Q.
61: In the Object Repository window.
A.
Local objects are editable (black)
B.
Shared objects are in read-only format (gray)
C. Local objects are in read-only format (gray)
D. Shared objects are editable (black)
C. Local objects are in read-only format (gray)
D. Shared objects are editable (black)
Q.
62: Mark the true statement
A.
You can delete objects from a shared object repository using the Object
Repository window.
B. You can delete objects from the local object repository using the Object Repository Manager
C. You can delete objects from the local object repository using the Object Repository window
D. You can delete objects from a shared object repository using the Object Repository Manager
B. You can delete objects from the local object repository using the Object Repository Manager
C. You can delete objects from the local object repository using the Object Repository window
D. You can delete objects from a shared object repository using the Object Repository Manager
Q.
63: You can modify an object stored in a shared object repository.
A.
Using the Object Repository Manager
B. Using the Object Repository window
C. You can copy it to the local object repository and then modify its properties
D. You cannot modify properties of objects stored in Shared object repository
B. Using the Object Repository window
C. You can copy it to the local object repository and then modify its properties
D. You cannot modify properties of objects stored in Shared object repository
Q.
64: If an object is contained in both local and shared repositories then,
during a run session.
A.
QuickTest will use the object in the local object repository
B. QuickTest will use the object in the Shared object repository
C. There will be a conflict
D. QuickTest will use Descriptive Programming
B. QuickTest will use the object in the Shared object repository
C. There will be a conflict
D. QuickTest will use Descriptive Programming
Q.
65: When you copy an object to the local object repository
A.
Its parent objects are also copied to the local object repository
B. Its parent objects are not copied to the local object repository
C. You have to manually copy its parent objects are also copied to the local object repository
D. You have to manually drag and drop its parent objects
B. Its parent objects are not copied to the local object repository
C. You have to manually copy its parent objects are also copied to the local object repository
D. You have to manually drag and drop its parent objects
Q.
66: For tests, you can also view test object properties and property values for
objects in the Active Screen, regardless of whether the objects are stored in
the object repository.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
67: Object Properties window differs for objects stored in Shared and Local
object repository.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
68: You can rename objects in the shared object repository using the Object
Repository Manager
A.
True
B.
False, you cannot rename objects in shared object repository
Q.
69: When you modify the name of an object in the local object repository, the
name is automatically updated in ___________ for all occurrences of the object.
A.
in the Keyword View
B. in
the Expert View
C. Both
Keyword and Expert View
D.
Changing name of an object doest not effect keyword or expert view
Q. 70: When you modify
the name of an object in a shared repository, the name is automatically updated
in all tests open on the same computer that use the object repository as soon
as you make the change, even if you have not yet saved the object repository
with your changes.
A.
True
B. False
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C,D
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A,C
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A
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A
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A
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A
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A
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C
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A
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Q. 71: 'Browser navigation timeout' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings) window.
A. Properties
B. Resources
C. Web
D. Web Settings
Q. 72: How many tabs are there in Test
Settings (File->Settings) window?
A. 7
B. 6
C. 5
D. 8
Q. 73: Identify the tabs in the Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A. Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
B. Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web Settings, Recovery
C. Properties, Run Options, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
D. Properties, Run, Resources, Input Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
A. 7
B. 6
C. 5
D. 8
Q. 73: Identify the tabs in the Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A. Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
B. Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web Settings, Recovery
C. Properties, Run Options, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
D. Properties, Run, Resources, Input Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
Q.
74: 'Generate Script' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings)
window
A.
Properties
B. Web
C. Resources
B. Web
C. Resources
D.
Recovery
Q.
75: The following are the four main columns in the Keyword view
A. Item,
Operation, Value, Comments
B. Item, Operation, Value, Documentation
C. Item, Operation, Property, Documentation
D. Number, Operation, Value, Documentation
Q. 76: For each object and method in an Expert View statement, a corresponding row exists in the Keyword View.
A. True
B. False
C. There is a problem with the statement.
D. None of above
B. Item, Operation, Value, Documentation
C. Item, Operation, Property, Documentation
D. Number, Operation, Value, Documentation
Q. 76: For each object and method in an Expert View statement, a corresponding row exists in the Keyword View.
A. True
B. False
C. There is a problem with the statement.
D. None of above
Q.
77: You can work on one or several function libraries at the same time.
A.
True
B. False
Q. 78: You can insert additional steps on the test objects captured in the Active screen after the recording session.
A. True
B. False
B. False
Q. 78: You can insert additional steps on the test objects captured in the Active screen after the recording session.
A. True
B. False
Q. 79: The Active Screen enables you to parameterize object values and insert checkpoints
A.
True
B. False
B. False
Q.
80: A QTP user can increase or decrease the active screen information saved
with the test.
A.
True
B. False
B. False
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C
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A
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A
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A
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B
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A
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A
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A
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A
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A
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Q. 81: An __________
assigns a numerical value to a test object that indicates its order or location
relative to other objects with an otherwise identical description
A.
Index
identifier.
B.
Ordinal identifier.
C. SMART ID identifier.
C. SMART ID identifier.
D.
Original identifier.
Q.
82: You can add an object to the local object repository only if that object
does not already exist in a shared object repository that is associated with
the action. If an object already exists in an associated shared object
repository, you can add it to the local object repository using the
______________ option.
A.
Copy from Shared
Repository
B. Copy
from Shared Object Repository
C. Copy to Local
C. Copy to Local
D. Copy
to Local repository
Q.
83: You can copy, paste, and move objects in the local object repository using
the Object Repository window, and copy, paste, and move objects both within a
shared object repository and between shared object repositories using the Object
Repository Manager. But you cannot copy objects from a shared object repository
to the local object repository to modify them locally
A.
True
B.
False
Q.
84: At the time of copying, pasting and moving objects, you cannot move an
object to any of its descendants.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
85: When you remove a step from your test, its corresponding object is also
removed from the object repository
A.
True
B. False
Q.
86: You can use the Find and Replace dialog box to replace property or object
names.
A. True
A. True
B.
False
Q. 87: The Object Repository window is __________ during record and run sessions
Q. 87: The Object Repository window is __________ during record and run sessions
A.
Read-only
B.
Rad-write only
C. Read-write and enable
C. Read-write and enable
D. None
of above
Q.
88: In the Associated Repositories tab of the Action Properties dialog box, the
__________ object repository is always listed first and cannot be moved down
the priority list or deleted.
A.
Local
B.
Shared
C. Both
D. None
Q.
89: In the Associated Repositories tab of the Action Properties dialog box,
although we can order the object repositories according to our choice except
the fact that Shared Repository remains the first one and cannot be removed.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
90: If your object repositories are stored in the file system and you want
other users or Mercury products to be able to run this action on other
computers, you should set the file path as a ______________.
A.
Absolute
path
B.
Relative path
C. Both
D. None
of above
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C
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B
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A
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B
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B
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A
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A
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B
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B
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Q.
91: Panes
in QTP can have one of the following states—docked or floating.
A. True
B. False
Q. 92: Which of the following statement is True:
B. False
Q. 92: Which of the following statement is True:
A. Quick
Test enables you to open and work on one test at a time
B. Quick Test enables you to open and work on two tests at a time
C. Quick Test enables you to open and work on predefined number of tests at a time
D. Quick Test enables you to open and work on nine test at a time
B. Quick Test enables you to open and work on two tests at a time
C. Quick Test enables you to open and work on predefined number of tests at a time
D. Quick Test enables you to open and work on nine test at a time
Q.
93: Which of the following statement is true?
A.
You can open and work on two function libraries simultaneously
B. You can open and work on multiple function libraries simultaneously
C. You can open and work on nine function libraries simultaneously
D. You can open and work on one function library at a time
B. You can open and work on multiple function libraries simultaneously
C. You can open and work on nine function libraries simultaneously
D. You can open and work on one function library at a time
Q.
94: You can open any function library, regardless of whether it is associated
with the currently open test.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
95: You can work with multiple documents (test, component, or application area,
function libraries: using the ______ dialog box
A.
Panes
B.
Display
C. Show
D.
Windows
Q.
96: Quick Test has ______ Built-in toolbars.
A.
5
B. 6
C.
7
D. 8
Q.
97: The ________ toolbar contains buttons for recording and running your test.
A.
Standard
B. Tools
C.
Automation
D. Edit
Q.
98: Shortcut Key for opening a new Function Library is:
A.
Shift+Alt+N
B. Ctrl+Alt+N
B. Ctrl+Alt+N
C.
Shift+N
D.
CRTL+N
Q.
99: Shortcut Key for closing all open Function Libraries in one go.
A.
Ctrl+Alt+C
B. Shift+A+C
B. Shift+A+C
B.
Shift+N
D. None of these
Q. 100: Shortcut Key for Commenting out the current row, or selected rows
D. None of these
Q. 100: Shortcut Key for Commenting out the current row, or selected rows
A.
Shift+M
B. Ctrl+C
B. Ctrl+C
C.
Ctrl+M
D.
Shift+C
91
|
92
|
93
|
94
|
95
|
96
|
97
|
98
|
99
|
100
|
A
|
A
|
B
|
A
|
D
|
D
|
C
|
A
|
D
|
C
|
A. Short
B. External
C. Reusable
D. Non-reusable
Q. 102: You can display or hide the Action toolbar in the Keyword View by choosing View > Toolbars > Action.
A. View > Toolbars > Action
B. View > Toolbars > Actions
C. View > Toolbar > Action
D. Views > Toolbars > Action
Q. 103: The ___________ enables you to view either the entire test flow (the calls to the actions in the test) or you can view the steps for a selected reusable or external action.
A. Action Flow
B. Action file
C. Action List
D. Action Repository
Q. 104: In the _________ the Action List is always visible and the Expert View always displays the script for the selected action.
A. Keyword View
B. Expert View
C. Action Flow
D. Action View
Q. 105: The __________ method - imports a sheet of a specified file to a specified sheet in the run-time Data Table.
A. SheetImport
B. ImportSheet
C. ImportDataTable
D. ImportTable
Q. 106: The column headings in the sheet you import must match the Data Table parameter names in the action for which the sheet is being imported. Otherwise, your test or component may fail.
A. True
B. False
Q. 107: The sheet you import automatically takes the name of the sheet it replaces.
A. True
B. False
Q. 108: The use of complex and / or nested formulas in the Data Table is supported.
A. True
B. False
Q. 109: The data your test uses is stored in the __________ Data Table, which is displayed in the Data Table pane at the bottom of the screen while you insert and edit steps.
A. Design-time
B. Run-time
C. Current
D. None
Q. 110: During the run session, QuickTest creates a ___________ Data Table live version of the Data Table associated with your test.
A. True
B. False
101 |
102 |
103 |
104 |
105 |
106 |
107 |
108 |
109 |
110 |
D |
A |
C |
B |
B |
A |
A |
B |
A |
A |
Q. 111: By default, the bottom right part of the Test Results window displays information on the selected checkpoint only if it has the status Failed.
A. True
B. False
Q. 112: You can also use the ___________ to check specific property values.
A. CheckProperty method
B. CheckItemProperty method
C. ItemProperty method
D. Property method
Q. 113: If you want to retrieve the return value of a checkpoint (a Boolean value that indicates whether the checkpoint passed or failed), you must add ______________ the checkpoint argument in the statement in the Expert View.
A. Parentheses around
B. Properties with
C. Arguments with
D. Values alongwith
Q. 114: You can use a formula in a checkpoint to confirm that an object created on-the-fly (dynamically generated) or another variable object in your Web page or application contains the value it should for a given context.
A. True
B. False
Q. 115: You cannot modify the settings of existing checkpoints.
A. True
B. False
Q. 116: You can edit information in the Data Table by typing directly into the table cells.
A. True
B. False
Q. 117: Each row in the table represents the set of values that QuickTest submits for the _______________ arguments during a single iteration of the test or action.
A. Parameterized
B. Non-parameterized
C. Distributed
D. None of above
Q. 118: For every action called in your test, QuickTest creates a corresponding __________ in the Data Table so that you can enter Data Table parameters that are specific to that action only.
A. Action sheet
B. Excel sheet
C. Both A & B
D. None
Q. 119: When you create a test, it includes _____________ action.
A. Single
B. Unlimited
C. Three
D. Multiple
Q. 120: There are three kinds of actions.
A. Non-reuse action, reuse action, external action
B. Call to internal action, Call to reusable action, external action
C. Non-reusable action, reusable action, external action
D. Call to non-reusable action, reusable action, external action
111 |
112 |
113 |
114 |
115 |
116 |
117 |
118 |
119 |
120 |
A |
A |
A |
A |
B |
A |
A |
A |
A |
C |
A. WaitProperty
B. Wait
C. Sync
D. Exit
Q. 122: The __________ statement - Initiates a pause during a run session.
A. WaitProperty
B. Wait
C. Sync
D. Exit
Q. 123: The _________ property - the maximum time (in milliseconds) that QuickTest waits for a Web page to load before running a step.
A. BrowserTimeout
B. Browser_Navigation_Timeout
C. BrowserNavigationTimeout
D. Browser_Timeout
Q. 124: The ___________ checks a variety of objects such as buttons, radio buttons, combo boxes, lists, and so forth.
A. Image checkpoint
B. Standard checkpoint
C. Bitmap checkpoint
D. Accessibility checkpoint
Q. 125: You create an image checkpoint by inserting a _________ on an image object.
A. Image checkpoint
B. Standard checkpoint
C. Bitmap checkpoint
D. Accessibility checkpoint
Q. 126: The __________ are also supported for some list view objects, such as WinListView and VbListView, as well as other list view objects in external add-in environments.
A. Table checkpoints
B. Standard checkpoints
C. Accessibility checkpoints
D. XML checkpoints
Q. 127: The_________identifies areas of your Web site that may not conform to the World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) Web Content Accessibility Guidelines.
A. Accessibility Checkpoint
B. Standard checkpoints
C. Database checkpoints
D. Accessible Checkpoint
Q. 128: The ___________ specifies the time interval (in seconds) during which QuickTest attempts to perform the checkpoint successfully.
A. Check timeout
B. Checkpoint interval timeout
C. Checkpoint timeout
D. Quicktest timeout
Q. 129: The ______________ specifies when to perform the checkpoint in the test.
A. Insert statement.
B. Check statement.
C. Timeout statement.
D. Checkpoint statement.
Q. 130:You can view the results of the checkpoint in the _____________.
A. Test Results window
B. Checkpoint window
C. Information Pane
D. Checklist window
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122 |
123 |
124 |
125 |
126 |
127 |
128 |
129 |
130 |
A |
B |
C |
B |
B |
A |
A |
C |
A |
A |
A. Action
B. Environment Variable
C. Test
D. Parent action
Q. 132: When specifying the name for data table parameter, the first character of the parameter name must be a _________.
A. Letter
B. Underscore
C. Number
D. Both A & B
Q. 133: By outputting values to the global Data Table sheet from one action and using them as input parameters in another action, you can easily pass values from one action to another.
A. True
B. False
Q. 134: The ___________ parameters are especially useful for localization testing, when you want to test an application where the user interface strings change, depending on the selected language.
A. Action
B. Environment
C. Test
D. Parent action
Q. 135: You can also store environment variable files in Quality Center.
A. True
B. False
Q. 136: The ___________built-in environment variable that tells version of the OS on which you are working.
A. OS
B. OS_Ver
C. OSVER
D. OSVersion
Q. 137: Random number parameters are appropriate for non-numeric values, such as text or hypertext links.
A. True
B. False
Q. 138: Regular expressions enable QuickTest to identify objects and text strings with undependable values.
A. True
B. False
Q. 139:You can use regular expressions only for values of type string and number.
A. True
B. False
Q. 140: If you expect the value of a property to change in an unpredictable way during each run session, you can use regular expressions.
A. True
B. False
131 |
132 |
133 |
134 |
135 |
136 |
137 |
138 |
139 |
140 |
D |
D |
A |
B |
A |
D |
B |
A |
BB |
|
A. Export.Datatable
B. DataTable_Export
C. DataTable.Export
D. Both A & B
Q. 142: When you parameterize a step in a test using the Data Table, you must decide whether you want to make it a global Data Table parameter or an action Data Table parameter.
A. True
B. False
Q. 143: After running a parameterized test, you can view the actual values taken from the Data Table in the Test Results Run-Time Data Table.
A. True
B. False
Q. 144: The _________ property - returns the design-time Data Table, which enables you to modify the data that is used for the Data Table parameters in your test or business component.
A. DataTable
B. DesignTable
C. Design_Table
D. None
Q. 145: The Data Table assists you in parameterizing your test.
A. True
B. False
Q. 146: You can parameterize values ___________ in your test.
A. In Steps
B. In Checkpoints
C. Of Action Parameters
D. Both A & B
E: All of above
Q. 147: You can parameterize values in steps and checkpoints while _________ your test.
A. Recording
B. Editing
C. Both A & B
Q. 148: There are four types of parameters: Test/Action, Random number, Environment Variable, Regular Expression.
A. True
B. False
Q. 149: While using Test and Action Input Parameters,you can enter the parameter name in the Expert View using the Parameter utility object, in the format: ______________for the current action.
A. Parameter("ParameterName":
B. ParameterName("Parameter":
C. Parameter("Parameter-Name":
D. Parameter("Parameter_Name":
Q. 150: The _____________ parameters are available only for top-level actions.
A. Action
B. Environment Variable
C. Test
D. None
141 |
142 |
143 |
144 |
145 |
146 |
147 |
148 |
149 |
150 |
C |
A |
A |
A |
A |
E |
C |
A |
A |
C |
Q.
151: Only the file name _________ is recognized as an action template
A.
ActionTemplate.mst
B.
Action_Template.mst
C. Action-Template.mst
C. Action-Template.mst
D.
ActionTemplates.mst
Q.
152: You can import and export object repositories from and to __________files.
A.
XML
B.
MTS
C.
TSR
D. XLS
Q.
153: In general, the _________ object repository is easiest to use when you are
creating simple record and run tests.
A.
Shared
B.
Local
C. Both
D. None
Q.
154: The Object Repository automation object model enables you to manipulate
QuickTest _________ object repositories and their contents from outside of
QuickTest.
A.
Shared
B.
Local
C. Both
D. None
Q.
155: Before using the Object Repository automation object model to manipulate
shared object repository stored in Quality Center, you must download the shared
object repository and save it to the file system.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
156: SetTOProperty changes the property values used to identify an object
during the test run. It also effects the values saved in the Object Repository
for the object.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
157: After creating or editing an object repository XML file, it is recommended
to use the QuickTest __________ functionality to verify that your file conforms
to the QuickTest object repository schema.
A.
Schema
Verification
B.
Schema Validation
C. XML Validation
C. XML Validation
D. XML
Verification
Q.
158: To display the Comment in the Object Repository dialog box, you must use
the attribute name __________.
A.
Miccommentproperty
B.
Commentproperty
C. Mic_comment_property
C. Mic_comment_property
D. None
of above
Q.
159: ObjectRepositoryUtil Object enables you to manipulate _________ object
repository files from outside of QuickTest Professional.
A.
Shared
B.
Local
C.
Both
D. None
Q.
160: You can use the Object Repository Merge Tool to merge objects from
_____________
A.
Two shared object repositories into a single shared object repository.
B. The local object repository of one or more actions or components into a shared object repository.
C. Both A & B
B. The local object repository of one or more actions or components into a shared object repository.
C. Both A & B
D. None
151
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152
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153
|
154
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155
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156
|
157
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158
|
159
|
160
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A
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A
|
B
|
A
|
A
|
B
|
B
|
A
|
C
|
C
|
Q.
161: GetTOProperty method returns the value of a specified property for a test
object from the Object Repository.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
162: The new Object Repository Comparison Tool is accessible from the Object
Repository Manager. You can use this tool to identify the differences between
objects in ___________.
A.
Two specified shared object repository files.
B. A Shared and a Local object repository files.
C. Either Shared or Local object repository files.
D. Two specified Local object repository files.
B. A Shared and a Local object repository files.
C. Either Shared or Local object repository files.
D. Two specified Local object repository files.
Q.
163: You can use the objects and methods of the QuickTest _____________ to
write scripts that automatically manipulate object repositories, instead of
performing these operations manually using the Object Repository Manager.
A.
Automation object model
B. Object Repository automation object model
C. Object Repository model
D. Object Repository Script Object model
B. Object Repository automation object model
C. Object Repository model
D. Object Repository Script Object model
Q.
164: You must convert object repository files from QuickTest Professional 8.2.1
or earlier to the current format before you can use them in QuickTest
Professional 9.0 or later. Which method lets you do so.
A.
Conversion method
B.
Converge method
C.
Convert method
D. None
Q.
165: You open the Object Repository window for a specific component by choosing
___________.
A.
Resources > Object
Repository
B. Tools
> Object Repository
C. File > Object Repository
C. File > Object Repository
D. Help
> Object Repository
Q.
166: In QTP 9 or above, Test objects can be stored in two types of object
repositories ___________.
A.
A shared object repository and a Per-Action object repository.
B. A shared object repository and a local object repository.
C. A shared object repository and a Action object repository.
D. Both A & C
B. A shared object repository and a local object repository.
C. A shared object repository and a Action object repository.
D. Both A & C
Q.
167: The Object Repository Manager enables you to open ___________ shared
object repositories and modify them as needed
A.
Multiple
B.
Three
C.
Two
D. Seven
Q.
168: The _________ Method loads the specified object repository.
A.
Overload
B.
Load
C. Both
A &
B
D. None
Q.
169: An object repository that is currently open by another user is locked, is
it possible to merge a locked object repository.
A.
Yes
B. No
Q.
170: You can manage the shared object repository associations of a selected
test using the ________________.
A.
Associate Repositories dialog box
B.
Object Repositories dialog box
C. Associate Repositories Manager dialog box
C. Associate Repositories Manager dialog box
D.
Object Repositories Manager dialog box
161
|
162
|
163
|
164
|
165
|
166
|
167
|
168
|
169
|
170
|
A
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
A
|
B
|
A
|
B
|
A
|
A
|
Q.
171: You cannot expand ________ actions from the test flow view.
A.
Reusable
B.
Non-reusable
C. Both
A &
B
D. None
Q.
172: You can associate shared object repositories with __________ actions
simultaneously, using the Associate Repositories dialog box
A.
Seven
B.
Two
C.
Three
D.
Multiple
Q.
173: You can associate ___________ object repositories with an action, and the
same object repository can be associated with different actions as needed
A.
Nine
B.
Twenty one
C. As
many as you
need
D.
Twelve
Q.
174: Sometimes you may want to call an action from within an action. This is
called _________.
A.
Reusability
B.
Nesting
C.
Sharing
D. None
Q.
175: If a reusable action is called more than once in a test and you split the
action into two independent actions, each call to the action within the test
will be followed by a call to the new (reusable: action. If a reusable action
is called from another test, however, _________ it may cause the calling test
to fail.
A.
Nesting
B.
Splitting
C.
Reusing
D. Both
A & C
Q.
176: You must use the __________ Action option in QuickTest if you want to save
an action under another name.
A.
Resave
B.
Rename
C.
Reuse
D. Split
Q.
177: When you remove an external action, you remove all calls and the action
from the action list. The original action is also affected.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
178: You can also press _________ to open the Rename Action dialog box
A.
Shift +
F2
B. Shift
+
F3
C. Shift
+
F4
D. Shift
+ F5
Q.
179: If you want to include one or more statements in every new action in your
test, you can create an ____________.
A.
Reusable action
B. Split
action
C.
Function
D.
Action template
Q.
180: With QuickTest Professional 9.0, a maximum of ___________ Actions can be
placed into a script
A.
110
B.
256
C.
120
D. 512
171
|
172
|
173
|
174
|
175
|
176
|
177
|
178
|
179
|
180
|
A
|
D
|
C
|
B
|
B
|
B
|
B
|
A
|
D
|
C
|
Q.
181: A test comprises calls to actions. When you create a new test, it contains
a call to a ________ action.
A.
One
B.
Two
C.
Three
D.
Multiple
Q.
182: When you open a test, you can choose to view _________.
A.
The test flow (calls to actions:
B. You can view and edit the individual actions stored with your test.
C. Both A & B
B. You can view and edit the individual actions stored with your test.
C. Both A & B
D. None
Q.
183: For every action called in your test, QuickTest creates a corresponding
_________ in the Data Table so that you can enter Data Table parameters that
are specific to that action only.
A.
Action sheet
B. Excel
sheet
C. Both
A &
B
D. None
Q.
184: When you create a test, it includes _______ action.
A.
Single
B.
Unlimited
C.
Three
D.
Multiple
Q.
185: There are three kinds of actions.
A.
Non-reuse action, reuse action, external action
B. Call to internal action, Call to reusable action, external action
C. Non-reusable action, reusable action, external action
D. Call to non-reusable action, reusable action, external action
B. Call to internal action, Call to reusable action, external action
C. Non-reusable action, reusable action, external action
D. Call to non-reusable action, reusable action, external action
Q.
186: By default, new actions are
A.
Short
B.
External
C.
Reusable
D.
Non-reusable
Q.
187: You can display or hide the Action toolbar in the Keyword View by choosing
_________.
A.
View > Toolbars >
Action
B. View
> Toolbars > Actions
C. View > Toolbar > Action
C. View > Toolbar > Action
D. Views
> Toolbars > Action
Q.
188: The ___________ enables you to view either the entire test flow (the calls
to the actions in the test: or you can view the steps for a selected reusable
or external action.
A.
Action Flow
B.
Action
file
C.
Action
List
D.
Action Repository
Q.
189: In the ________ the Action List is always visible and the Expert View
always displays the script for the selected action.
A.
Keyword View
B.
Expert View
C.
Action Flow
D. Action View
Q.
190: If the action is called more than once within the test flow or if the
action is called by a reusable action, the Reusable action option is _________.
A.
Read-only
B.
Write-only
C. Both
read and write
D.
Read-write-executable.
181
|
182
|
183
|
184
|
185
|
186
|
187
|
188
|
189
|
190
|
A
|
C
|
A
|
A
|
C
|
D
|
A
|
C
|
B
|
A
|
Q.
191: All changes you make to an object repository are automatically updated in
all components open on the same computer that use the object repository as soon
as you make the change even if you have not yet saved the object repository
with your changes.
A.
True
B. False
Q.
192: If you want to modify an object stored in a shared object repository, you
can modify it ________.
A.
Using the Object Repository Manager
B. You can modify it locally using the Object Repository window.
C. Both A & B
D. None of above
B. You can modify it locally using the Object Repository window.
C. Both A & B
D. None of above
Q.
193: The _____________ returns an ObjectRepositories collection representing
all object repository files associated with the action.
A.
Object Property
B. Automation Object Model
C. ObjectRepositories Property
D. OR Property
B. Automation Object Model
C. ObjectRepositories Property
D. OR Property
Q.
194: If you do not want QuickTest to perform a step or checkpoint until an
object in your application achieves a certain status, you should insert a
__________ point to instruct QuickTest to pause the test until the object
property achieves the value you specify
A. Synchronization
A. Synchronization
B.
Check
C. Smart
Identification
D. None
of above
Q.
195: Where do we specify the Maximum Time to Wait for a Web Page to Load
A. File->Settings, Web Tab.
A. File->Settings, Web Tab.
B.
Tools->Options, Web Tab.
C. Resources->Settings, Web Tab
C. Resources->Settings, Web Tab
D. None
of above
Q. 196: You can insert _____________ statements that instruct QuickTest to wait until an object exists
A. Exist
Q. 196: You can insert _____________ statements that instruct QuickTest to wait until an object exists
A. Exist
B. Wait
C. Both
A &
B
D. None
Q. 197: The _____________ method waits for the browser to complete the current navigation.
A. Exist
Q. 197: The _____________ method waits for the browser to complete the current navigation.
A. Exist
B. Wait
C.
WaitProperty
D. Sync
Q.
198: Sub Sync_Example(:Browser("Mercury Tours":.Page("Mercury
Tours":.Sync
End Sub
The above example uses the Sync method to wait for the Mercury Tours page to synchronize before performing the next operation.
A. True
End Sub
The above example uses the Sync method to wait for the Mercury Tours page to synchronize before performing the next operation.
A. True
B. False
Q. 199: The ___________ property - the period of time QuickTest waits before checking the emulator status (in milliseconds).
A. SyncTime
Q. 199: The ___________ property - the period of time QuickTest waits before checking the emulator status (in milliseconds).
A. SyncTime
B.
Sync.Time
C.
TimeSync
D.
Time.Sync
Q. 200: The
___________ Property indicates whether QuickTest beeps after performing each
Sync function during a run session.
A. BeepAfterSync
A. BeepAfterSync
B.
BeepOnSync
C.
BeepSync
D.
Beep.Sync
191
|
192
|
193
|
194
|
195
|
196
|
197
|
198
|
199
|
200
|
A
|
C
|
C
|
A
|
A
|
C
|
D
|
A
|
A
|
B
|
Q.
201: Recovery scenarios activate specific recovery operations when
__________occur.
A. Specific Errors
A. Specific Errors
B. Test
Errors
C. Trigger Events
C. Trigger Events
D. QTP
Errors
Q. 202: You can also control and activate your recovery scenarios during the run session by inserting ________ into your test.
A. Trigger Events
Q. 202: You can also control and activate your recovery scenarios during the run session by inserting ________ into your test.
A. Trigger Events
B.
Recovery Events
C. Recovery Statements
C. Recovery Statements
D. Catch
Statements
Q. 203: If you choose On error in the Activate recovery scenarios box in the Recovery tab of the Test Settings dialog box, the recovery mechanism does not handle triggers that occur in the last step of a test.
A. True
Q. 203: If you choose On error in the Activate recovery scenarios box in the Recovery tab of the Test Settings dialog box, the recovery mechanism does not handle triggers that occur in the last step of a test.
A. True
B. False
Q. 204: By default, recovery scenario operations are activated only after a step returns an error.
A. True
Q. 204: By default, recovery scenario operations are activated only after a step returns an error.
A. True
B. False
Q. 205: A _________ is a convenient way to organize and store multiple recovery scenarios together.
A. Recovery file
Q. 205: A _________ is a convenient way to organize and store multiple recovery scenarios together.
A. Recovery file
B.
Recovery folder
C. Recovery Log
C. Recovery Log
D. Log
File
Q. 206: The Recovery Scenario Manager dialog box enables you to create and edit recovery files, and does not let you create and manage the recovery scenarios stored in those files.
A. True
Q. 206: The Recovery Scenario Manager dialog box enables you to create and edit recovery files, and does not let you create and manage the recovery scenarios stored in those files.
A. True
B. False
Q. 207: Each recovery scenario is represented by an icon that indicates its type.
A. True
Q. 207: Each recovery scenario is represented by an icon that indicates its type.
A. True
B. False
Q. 208: The Recovery Operations screen in Recovery Scenario Wizard enables you to manage the collection of __________ in the recovery scenario.
A. Recovery operations
Q. 208: The Recovery Operations screen in Recovery Scenario Wizard enables you to manage the collection of __________ in the recovery scenario.
A. Recovery operations
B.
Recovery Files
C. Trigger events
C. Trigger events
D. All
of Above
Q. 209: If you define a Restart Microsoft Windows recovery operation, it is always inserted as the last recovery operation, and you can change its position in the list.
A. True
Q. 209: If you define a Restart Microsoft Windows recovery operation, it is always inserted as the last recovery operation, and you can change its position in the list.
A. True
B. False
Q.
210: If more than one scenario uses a function with the same name from
different function libraries, the recovery process may fail.
A. True
A. True
B. False
201
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202
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203
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204
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205
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206
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207
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208
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209
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210
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C
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C
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A
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A
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A
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B
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A
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A
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B
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A
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Q.
211: Before you record or run a test on a Web or Windows application, you can
use the _____ dialog box to instruct QuickTest which applications to open when
you begin to record or run your test.
A. Record and Run
A. Record and Run
B.
Record and Run Settings
C. Run and Record
C. Run and Record
D. Run
and Record Settings
Q. 212: If you define environment variables to specify the record and run details, those values override the values in the Record and Run dialog box.
A. True
Q. 212: If you define environment variables to specify the record and run details, those values override the values in the Record and Run dialog box.
A. True
B. False
Q. 213: You can record tests only on _______
A. Microsoft Internet Explorer
Q. 213: You can record tests only on _______
A. Microsoft Internet Explorer
B.
Netscape Browser
C. Mozilla Firefox
C. Mozilla Firefox
D. Opera
Q. 214: Record and Run Settings window contains two tabs
A. Web & Window
Q. 214: Record and Run Settings window contains two tabs
A. Web & Window
B. Web
& Windows Applications
C. Web & Window Applications
C. Web & Window Applications
D. Web
& Windows Application
Q.
215: You can add up to ______ applications to the application list displayed in
the Windows Applications tab
A. 10
A. 10
B.
12
C.
24
D. 64
Q.
216: You can use special, predefined environment variables to specify the
applications or browsers you want to use for your test while specifying the
Record and Run Details
A. True
A. True
B. False
Q. 217: If you select the option to Record and Run on any application or browser (the upper radio button in each tab of the Record and Run Settings dialog box), QuickTest _______ any defined record and run environment variables.
A. Does not
Q. 217: If you select the option to Record and Run on any application or browser (the upper radio button in each tab of the Record and Run Settings dialog box), QuickTest _______ any defined record and run environment variables.
A. Does not
B.
Ignores
C. May or may not ignore
C. May or may not ignore
D.
None of above
Q.
218: To use environment variables to specify the applications or browsers you
want to use for your test run, you must use the appropriate variable names e.g.
the variable name for the Web address to display in the browser is
A. URL_VAR
A. URL_VAR
B.
URL_EN
C.
URL_ENV
D.
URL_VA
Q. 219: The setting of the Active Screen capture level (Tools > Options > Active Screen taB. can significantly affect the _______ for your test and the functionality of the Active Screen while editing your test.
A. Repeating time
Q. 219: The setting of the Active Screen capture level (Tools > Options > Active Screen taB. can significantly affect the _______ for your test and the functionality of the Active Screen while editing your test.
A. Repeating time
B.
Waiting time
C.
Average time
D.
Recording time
Q. 220: The Web tab (Record and Run Settings dialog box) is available only when Web support is installed and loaded.
A. True
Q. 220: The Web tab (Record and Run Settings dialog box) is available only when Web support is installed and loaded.
A. True
B. False
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212
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213
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214
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215
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216
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217
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218
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219
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220
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C
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A
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C
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B
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A
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A
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C
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B
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D
|
A
|
Q.
221: You can install the QuickTest ______ add-ins (Web, ActiveX, Visual BasiC.
when you install QuickTest Professional, or you can install the QuickTest
built-in add-ins at a later time by running the installation again.
A. Internal
A. Internal
B.
External
C.
Built-in
D. All
of above
Q. 222: Add-ins that are installed separately from the QuickTest Professional installation are referred to as _____ add-ins.
Q. 222: Add-ins that are installed separately from the QuickTest Professional installation are referred to as _____ add-ins.
A.
Internal
B.
External
C.
Built-in
D.Built-out
Q.
223: When QuickTest opens, you can choose which of the installed add-ins you
want to load using the QuickTest Professional ______. dialog box.
A. Add-In Window
A. Add-In Window
B.
Add-In
C.
Add-In
Manager
D.
Add-In Management
Q.
224: Installing and Loading an Add-in is one and the same thing.
A. True
A. True
B. False
Q. 225: You can install Add-in Upgrade patches by running the relevant patch executable from the \ ______ folder.
A. AddinsUpdate
Q. 225: You can install Add-in Upgrade patches by running the relevant patch executable from the \ ______ folder.
A. AddinsUpdate
B.
AddinsUpgrade
C.
Addins_upgrade
D. Both
A & B
Q. 226: In Add-in Manager dialog box, Time-Limited column displays values only when using a QuickTest seat license not a concurrent license.
A. True
Q. 226: In Add-in Manager dialog box, Time-Limited column displays values only when using a QuickTest seat license not a concurrent license.
A. True
B. False
Q. 227: You can view the list of add-ins that are currently installed or loaded by choosing _________.
A. File > Settings
Q. 227: You can view the list of add-ins that are currently installed or loaded by choosing _________.
A. File > Settings
B. Tools
> Options and click the General tab.
C. Help > About QuickTest Professional.
C. Help > About QuickTest Professional.
D. Both
A & B
Q. 228: To maximize performance and object identification reliability, load all the add-ins.
A. True
Q. 228: To maximize performance and object identification reliability, load all the add-ins.
A. True
B. False
Q. 229: The add-in is displayed as Not Licensed in the License column of the Add-in Manager dialog box:
A. If an add-in license has not yet been installed for a specific external add-in.
B. If no concurrent license server within your subnet has a registered license for the specific add-in
C. If all concurrent licenses are in use
D. All of Above
Q. 230: You can use only one license type per session for QuickTest Professional and all loaded add-ins-either seat or concurrent.
A. True
Q. 229: The add-in is displayed as Not Licensed in the License column of the Add-in Manager dialog box:
A. If an add-in license has not yet been installed for a specific external add-in.
B. If no concurrent license server within your subnet has a registered license for the specific add-in
C. If all concurrent licenses are in use
D. All of Above
Q. 230: You can use only one license type per session for QuickTest Professional and all loaded add-ins-either seat or concurrent.
A. True
B. False
221
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222
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223
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224
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225
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226
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227
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228
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229
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230
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C
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B
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C
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B
|
B
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A
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C
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B
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D
|
A
|
Q.
231: If an object with the same name and description is located in both the
local object repository and in a shared object repository that is associated
with the same action, the action uses the ________ object definition.
A. Shared
A. Shared
B.
Local
C. Can
use any
D. None
of above.
Q. 232: You cannot use the same shared object repository with multiple actions.
A. True
Q. 232: You cannot use the same shared object repository with multiple actions.
A. True
B. False
Q. 233: If one or more of the property values of an object in your application differ from the property values QuickTest uses to identify the object, your test_______ fail.
A. May
Q. 233: If one or more of the property values of an object in your application differ from the property values QuickTest uses to identify the object, your test_______ fail.
A. May
B.
Must
C.
Should
D. Will
certainly
Q. 234: You can open as many shared object repositories as you want.
A. True
Q. 234: You can open as many shared object repositories as you want.
A. True
B. False
Q.
235: You can also open an object repository from the _________ in the File
menu.
A. Recent Folders list
A. Recent Folders list
B.
Current Files list
C. Recent Files list
C. Recent Files list
D.
Both A & C
Q. 236: QuickTest saves the object repository with a __________ extension in the specified location
A. .vsr
Q. 236: QuickTest saves the object repository with a __________ extension in the specified location
A. .vsr
B.
.tsr
C.
.lsr
D. .qsr
Q. 237: If you opened the object repository in _________. mode, you must enable editing for the object repository before you can modify it.
A. Read-write mode
Q. 237: If you opened the object repository in _________. mode, you must enable editing for the object repository before you can modify it.
A. Read-write mode
B.
Read-execute mode
C. Read-write-execute mode
C. Read-write-execute mode
D.
Read-only mode
Q. 238: You can also modify a shared object repository by merging it with another shared object repository.
A. True
Q. 238: You can also modify a shared object repository by merging it with another shared object repository.
A. True
B. False
Q. 239: You can also add objects to a shared object repository using the __________ option.
A. Navigate and Learn
Q. 239: You can also add objects to a shared object repository using the __________ option.
A. Navigate and Learn
B.
Navigate and
earn
C.
Navigate
D.
Navigate and Click
Q. 240: While finding objects in an Object Repository, you can use the Find and Replace dialog box to replace property or object names.
A. True
Q. 240: While finding objects in an Object Repository, you can use the Find and Replace dialog box to replace property or object names.
A. True
B. False
231
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232
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233
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234
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235
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236
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237
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238
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239
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240
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B
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B
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A
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A
|
C
|
B
|
D
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A
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A
|
B
|
Q.
241: In the Expert View, you can use the Object property to activate the method
for a Web object.
A. True
A. True
B. False
Q. 242: The test object property set for each test object is created and maintained by _______ The run-time object property set for each run-time object is created and maintained by the object creator
A. Microsoft
Q. 242: The test object property set for each test object is created and maintained by _______ The run-time object property set for each run-time object is created and maintained by the object creator
A. Microsoft
B.
Adobe
C.
HP
D.
QuickTest
Q. 243: You can view or modify the test object property values that are stored with your component in the Object Properties or Object Repository dialog box.
A. True
Q. 243: You can view or modify the test object property values that are stored with your component in the Object Properties or Object Repository dialog box.
A. True
B. False
Q.
244: It is possible that you can use the Object property to access the native
properties of any run-time object.
A. True
A. True
B. False
Q. 245: You cannot retrieve the values of test object properties from a run-time object.
A. True
Q. 245: You cannot retrieve the values of test object properties from a run-time object.
A. True
B. False
Q. 246: You can use the GetTOProperty, GetTOProperties, and SetTOProperty methods in your ________ to set and retrieve the test object property values of the test object.
A. Test
Q. 246: You can use the GetTOProperty, GetTOProperties, and SetTOProperty methods in your ________ to set and retrieve the test object property values of the test object.
A. Test
B.
Function
Library
C.
Applciation area
D. Both
A & B
Q. 247: Because QuickTest refers to the temporary version of the test object during the run session, any changes you make using the SetTOProperty method apply only during the course of the run session, and do not affect the values stored in the test object repository.
A. True
Q. 247: Because QuickTest refers to the temporary version of the test object during the run session, any changes you make using the SetTOProperty method apply only during the course of the run session, and do not affect the values stored in the test object repository.
A. True
B. False
Q.
248: You can use the Object Spy at any time to view _________ properties and
values of the objects in the application you are testing.
A. Run-time
A. Run-time
B. Test
object
C. Both
A &
B
D. None
Q.
249: You cannot add to the list of properties that QuickTest uses to identify
an object.
A. True
A. True
B. False
Q. 250: The default properties for a Link object (hypertext link): are _______
A. Name
Q. 250: The default properties for a Link object (hypertext link): are _______
A. Name
B.
Text
C. HTML
tag
D. Tag
241
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242
|
243
|
244
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245
|
246
|
247
|
248
|
249
|
250
|
A
|
D
|
A
|
A
|
B
|
D
|
A
|
C
|
B
|
B,C
|
Q.
251:Virtual objects enable you to record and run tests on objects that are
normally recognized by QuickTest.
A. True
A. True
B. False
Q. 252:In the test results, the virtual object is displayed as though it is a standard class object.
A. True
Q. 252:In the test results, the virtual object is displayed as though it is a standard class object.
A. True
B. False
Q.
253:QuickTest does not support virtual objects for ________ recording.
A. Analog
A. Analog
B.
Low-level
C.
Normal
D. Both
A & B
E: Both
A & C
Q. 254:You can use the Object Spy to view virtual object properties.
A. True
Q. 254:You can use the Object Spy to view virtual object properties.
A. True
B. False
Q. 255:You cannot insert any type of checkpoint on a virtual object
A. True
Q. 255:You cannot insert any type of checkpoint on a virtual object
A. True
B. False
Q.
256:The __________ contains all the virtual object collections defined on your
computer.
A. Virtual Objects Manager
A. Virtual Objects Manager
B.
Virtual Manager
C. Virtual Object Manager
C. Virtual Object Manager
D.
Virtual Object Wizard
Q. 257:Extention of virtual object collection files
A. .vcf
Q. 257:Extention of virtual object collection files
A. .vcf
B.
.vot
C.
.vct
D. .vcd
Q. 258:You can remove virtual objects from your test by _________ these objects.
A. Disabling recognition of
Q. 258:You can remove virtual objects from your test by _________ these objects.
A. Disabling recognition of
B.
Deleting
C. Deleting virtual object collection files of
C. Deleting virtual object collection files of
D. All
of Above
E: Both
A & B
Q.
259:When you want QuickTest to recognize virtual objects during recording,
ensure that the _________ check box in the General tab of the Options dialog
box is cleared.
A. Disable recognition of virtual object Files while recording
B. Disable recognition of virtual object Collection while recording
C. Disable recognition of virtual objects while recording
D. Enable recognition of virtual objects while recording
Q. 260:QuickTest identifies a virtual object according to its ___________
A. Properties
A. Disable recognition of virtual object Files while recording
B. Disable recognition of virtual object Collection while recording
C. Disable recognition of virtual objects while recording
D. Enable recognition of virtual objects while recording
Q. 260:QuickTest identifies a virtual object according to its ___________
A. Properties
B.
Boundaries
C.
Object
Spy
D. Edges
251
|
252
|
253
|
254
|
255
|
256
|
257
|
258
|
259
|
260
|
B
|
A
|
D
|
B
|
A
|
C
|
B
|
E
|
C
|
B
|
Q.
261: The _______. enables you to view either the entire test flow (the calls to
the actions in the test) or you can view the steps for a selected reusable or
external action.
A. Action Menu
A. Action Menu
B.
Action
List
C.
Action Toolbar
D.
Action View
Q. 262: You can view the ______ of the original action in the General tab of the Action Properties dialog box.
A. Parameters
Q. 262: You can view the ______ of the original action in the General tab of the Action Properties dialog box.
A. Parameters
B.
Location
C.
Associated Repositories
D. Type
Q.
263: You can create an additional call to any reusable or external action in
your test by pressing _________ while you drag and drop the action to another
location at a parallel (sibling: level within your test.
A. F3
A. F3
B.
Alt
C.
Shift
D. Ctrl
Q.
264:You can use action parameters in any step in your action (including
function calls).
A. True
A. True
B. False
Q. 265: Input values for an action parameter can be retrieved
A. From the test (for a top-level action:
Q. 265: Input values for an action parameter can be retrieved
A. From the test (for a top-level action:
B. From
the parameters of the parent action that calls it (for a nested action:
C. From the output of a previous action call (for a sibling action:
D. All of above
Q. 266: The Action Call Properties dialog box enables you to set options that apply only to a _______ action call.
A. Following
C. From the output of a previous action call (for a sibling action:
D. All of above
Q. 266: The Action Call Properties dialog box enables you to set options that apply only to a _______ action call.
A. Following
B.
Preceeding
C.
Specific
D.
Internal
Q.
267: Specifying input and output parameter values in action calls is ________
A. Required
A. Required
B.
Optional
C.
Required only for internal action
D. Both
A & B
Q. 268: You can share a value that is generated in one action with other actions in your test by storing the value in the _________ Data Table.
A. Internal
Q. 268: You can share a value that is generated in one action with other actions in your test by storing the value in the _________ Data Table.
A. Internal
B.
External
C.
Local
D.
Global
Q. 269: ExitAction
A. Exits the current action, regardless of its iteration attributes.
B. Exits the current iteration of the action.
C. Exits the test, regardless of its iteration attributes.
D. Exits the current global iteration.
Q. 270: If the action called by the RunAction statement includes an ExitAction statement, the RunAction statement can return the value of the ExitAction's RetVal argument.
A. True
Q. 269: ExitAction
A. Exits the current action, regardless of its iteration attributes.
B. Exits the current iteration of the action.
C. Exits the test, regardless of its iteration attributes.
D. Exits the current global iteration.
Q. 270: If the action called by the RunAction statement includes an ExitAction statement, the RunAction statement can return the value of the ExitAction's RetVal argument.
A. True
B. False
261
|
262
|
263
|
264
|
265
|
266
|
267
|
268
|
269
|
270
|
B
|
B
|
D
|
A
|
D
|
C
|
B
|
D
|
A
|
A
|
Q.
271: To debug a function library, you must first associate it with a test and
then debug it from that test.
A. True
A. True
B. False
Q. 272: To detect and isolate defects in a test or function library, you can control the run session using the _______ command
A. Pause
Q. 272: To detect and isolate defects in a test or function library, you can control the run session using the _______ command
A. Pause
B.
Run
C.
F14
D.
Session
Q. 273: When the test or function library run stops at a breakpoint, you can use the ______ to check and modify the values of VBScript objects and variables.
A. Debug Window
Q. 273: When the test or function library run stops at a breakpoint, you can use the ______ to check and modify the values of VBScript objects and variables.
A. Debug Window
B. Debug
Dialog
C. Debug
Viewer
D. Debug
page
Q. 274: While the test and function libraries are running in debug mode, they are read-only
A. True
Q. 274: While the test and function libraries are running in debug mode, they are read-only
A. True
B. False
Q. 275: You cannot debug a file that is called using an _______ statement, or any of the functions contained in the file.
A. ExecuteFiles
Q. 275: You cannot debug a file that is called using an _______ statement, or any of the functions contained in the file.
A. ExecuteFiles
B.
Execute_File
C.
Execute-File
D.
ExecuteFile
Q. 276: The debug session can continue at the backend while you can perform file operations like opening a new test etc.
A. True
Q. 276: The debug session can continue at the backend while you can perform file operations like opening a new test etc.
A. True
B. False
Q.
277: Any changes you apply to external resources saved in the file system, such
as function libraries, are implemented only when the test is closed and
reopened but any changes you apply to any external resource that is saved in
your Quality Center project, such as a function library, will be implemented
immediately.
A. True
A. True
B. False
Q. 278: You can use the _______ command to begin your debug session at a specific point in your test.
A. Start from Step
Q. 278: You can use the _______ command to begin your debug session at a specific point in your test.
A. Start from Step
B. Run
to Step
C. Run
from Step
D. Start
to Step
Q. 279: You can specify the time (in milliseconds: QuickTest pauses between each step by modifying the ________. option in the Run tab of the Options dialog box (Tools > Options)
A. Delay step execution by
Q. 279: You can specify the time (in milliseconds: QuickTest pauses between each step by modifying the ________. option in the Run tab of the Options dialog box (Tools > Options)
A. Delay step execution by
B. Delay
every step execution by
C. Delay all steps execution by
C. Delay all steps execution by
D. Delay
each step execution by
Q. 280: To display the Debug toolbar, choose _________.
A. View > Toolbar > Debug
Q. 280: To display the Debug toolbar, choose _________.
A. View > Toolbar > Debug
B. View
> Toolbars > Debugs
C. Views > Toolbar > Debug
C. Views > Toolbar > Debug
D. View
> Toolbars > Debug
271
|
272
|
273
|
274
|
275
|
276
|
277
|
278
|
279
|
280
|
A
|
A
|
C
|
A
|
D
|
B
|
B
|
A
|
D
|
D
|
Q.
281: When a procedure is created in the Function Library editor, what is the
extension on the file?
A.
.INI
B. .TXT
C. .QFL
D. .VBS
Q.
282: What are the categories in the Step Generator?
A.
Object, Operation, Value
B.
Library, Built-in, Local Script
C.
Operation, Arguments, Return Value
D. Test
Objects, Utility Objects, Functions
Q.
283: In Test Settings ->Run the Data Table iteration options are for which
data sheet?
A. Local
B.
Global
C.
Run-time Data Table
D.
Design-time Data Table
Q.
284: What can you use to handle unpredictable testing exceptions?
A.
A Do Loop
B.
Recovery scenario
C. IF
THEN Statement
D.
Select Case statement
Q.
285: In which command can you associate a function library to a test?
A.
Run Options
B. Test
Settings
C. View
Options
D.
Function Definition Generator
Q.
286: Where do you set the action iterations for a specified action?
A.
Action Settings
B.
Action Properties
C.
Action Run Settings
D.
Action Call Properties
Q.
287: Where do you mark an action as reusable?
A.
Action Settings
B.
Action Properties
C.
Action Run Settings
D.
Action Call Properties
Q.
288 : After running a test that contains both input and output parameters,
where can the results of an output parameter be found?
A.
Local DataSheet
B.
Global DataSheet
C.
Run-time Data Table
D.
Design-time Data Table
Q.
289: If you have a Virtual Object Collection stored on your machine, and you
don't want to use it, what must you do?
A.
Disable Virtual Objects in Test Settings
B.
Remove the Collection from your machine
C.
Disable Virtual Objects in General Options
D.
Remove the Collections from the Resources list
Q.
290: Which method for the Data Table utility object will allow you to retrieve
information from the Data Table during a test run?
A.
Value
B.
Import
C. Get
Cell
D. Get
Value
281
|
282
|
283
|
284
|
285
|
286
|
287
|
288
|
289
|
290
|
C
|
D
|
B
|
B
|
B
|
D
|
B
|
C
|
C
|
A
|
Q.
291: What does the source property of a database checkpoint object represent?
A.
The SQL query
B. The
identification number of the database
C. The
number of rows returned from the query
D. The
connection string used to connect to the database
Q.
292: What is created, by default, with each new action?
A.
Local Data Sheet, Global Data Sheet, Folder
B. Local
Object Repository, Local Data Sheet, Folder
C. Global
Data Sheet, Local Object Repository, Folder
D. Local
Data Sheet, Global Data Sheet, Local Object Repository
Q.
293: What are the available environment variable type(s)?
A.
Built-in
B.
User-defined
C.
User-function
D.
Built-in, User-defined
E.
Built-in, User-function
Q.
294: If the Global Data sheet contains no data and the Local Datasheet contains
two rows of data, how many times will the test iterate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Q.
295: What is the first thing that must be defined in a Recovery Scenario?
A.
Trigger
B.
Recovery Operation
C.
Recovery Scenario Name
D. The
Function used in the scenario
Q.
296: What are bitmap checkpoints sensitive to?
A.
Image size and object type
B. Object
type and image type
C. Screen
resolution and object type
D. Screen
resolution and image size
Q.
297: If the Local Data sheet contains two rows of data, how many times will the
action iterate, by default?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Q.
298: How do you close the database session after examining the results of an
SQL query?
A.
Call the ADO.Close function
B. Use the
close method for the RecordSet object
C. Set the
RecordSet and Connection objects equal to Nothing
D. Use the
close method for the RecordSet and Connection objects
Q.
299: What are the available trigger event types?
A. Pop-up
window, object state, VBScript event
B. Object
State, VBScript event, Application crash
C. Pop-up
window, object state, test run error, QTP crash
D. Pop-up
window, object state, test run error, application crash
Q.
300: What is the keyword used to define how the counter variable in a For Next
loop increments?
A.
++
B. NEXT
C. SKIP
D. STEP
291
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292
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293
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294
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295
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296
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297
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298
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299
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300
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A
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B
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D
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A
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A
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D
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A
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D
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D
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D
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Q. 301: What are the
two most commonly used ADO objects?
A.
Fields
B.
Execute
C.
Connection, RecordSet
D. Open,
ConnectionString
Q.
302: How do you declare a constant?
A.
Dim Statement
B. Con
Statement
C. Const
Statement
D.
Option Explicit statement
Q.
303: What method is used to retrieve the number of columns in the query
results?
A.
Fields.Count
B.
Fields.Item(EOF)
C.
Fields.Count(BOF)
D.
Fields.Count.Value
Q.
304: To bypass the Object Repository you can:
A. Turn
the Object Repository off
B. Use a
programmatic description
C.
Delete all objects in all repositories
D. Add
the object to the Object Repository Manager
Q.
305: What does the ChildObjects method return?
A.
A Collection object
B. A
string true/false
C. A
Boolean TRUE/FALSE
D. The
number of objects matching the ChildObject description
Q. 306: What object is
used to read information from a text file?
A.
Read
B.
ReadLine
C.
TextStream
D.
FileSystem
E.
OpenTextFile
Q.
307: If you are typing in Expert View and you type an object followed by a dot,
what does QuickTest display?
A.
Nothing
B. The
arguments for that object
C. The
methods and properties for that object
D. The
child objects and methods for that object
Q.
308: By default, how does QuickTest pass arguments to the procedure?
A.
ByVal
B. ByRef
C. ByArg
D. ByRes
Q.
309: What object is used to send information to test results at the completion
of the test run?
A.
Result
B.
Reporter
C.
ReportEvent
D.
ResultReport
Q.
310: If a procedure is defined in a test script, that procedure is accessible
to which tests/scripts?
A. Only
to other procedures
B. It is
not usable to any test scripts
C. The
test script in which it is defined
D. Using
the Step Generator, it is available to any test script
301
|
302
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303
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304
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305
|
306
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307
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308
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309
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310
|
C
|
C
|
A
|
B
|
A
|
C
|
D
|
B
|
B
|
C
|
Q.
311: When does a Do loop statement evaluate for continuation?
A. At the
end of the loop
B. At the
start of the loop
C. At the
start or the end of the loop
D. This
loop uses a counter variable
Q.
312: How can you retrieve the number of items in the list for a WebList object?
A. GetList
B. GetItem
C.
GetItemsCount
D.
GetROProperty
Q.
313: What is the difference between a subroutine and a function?
A. A
subroutine can call itself; a function cannot
B. A
function returns a value; a subroutine cannot
C. A function
can accept arguments; a subroutine cannot.
D. A
subroutine can call other procedures; a function cannot.
Q.
314: What method is used to send a run-time Data sheet to an Excel file?
A. Send
B. Export
C.
SendSheet
D.
Exportsheet
Q.
315: What looping statements are available in QuickTest?
A.
While end, Do loop, If Then
B. Switch
Case, If Ten, For Next
C. For
Next, While End, Do Loop
D. For
Text, Do Loop, Switch Chase
Q.
316: What does the GetTOProperty method do?
A.
Retrieves the value of a property from a test object
B.
Retrieves the available properties from a test object
C.
Retrieves the value of a property from a run-time object
D.
Retrieves the available properties from a run-time object
Q.
317: To use low-level recording, what must you do first?
A.
Start a new test
B. Be in
the KeyWord view
C. Be
recording in Normal mode
D. Click
Low Level Recording under the Automation Menu
Q.
318: What is the correct set of add-ins installed automatically with QuickTest
9.2?
A.
NET, Web, Java
B. Web,
SAP, Visual Basic
C. Active
X, Visual Basic, Web
D. Active
X, TE, Web Services
Q.
319: What information can be seen in the information pane?
A.
Syntax errors
B. The
test name and author
C. The QTP
license information
D. The
machine id and operating system
Q.
320: What does a breakpoint do?
A.
Stops test execution at the specified step, after executing that step
B. Stops
test execution at the specified step, before executing that step
C. Pauses
test execution at the specified step, after executing that step
D. Pauses
test execution at the specified step, before executing that step
311
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312
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313
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314
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315
|
316
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317
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318
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319
|
320
|
C
|
D
|
B
|
D
|
C
|
A
|
C
|
C
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A
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D
|
Q. 321: Which of the
following is an example of a missing resource?
A. An
object
B. Run
Results
C. A
Regular Action
D. An
External
Q.
322: What are the available step commands in QuickTest?
A. Step,
Step Into, Step Out
B. Step
Into, Step Over, Step Out
C. Step
Test, Step Action, Step Function
D. Run
from Step, Debug from Step, Run from Step
Q.
323: When a test is run in update mode, what is updated?
A. The
test results
B. The
object descriptions
C. The
action names in the test
D. The
logical names in the test
Q.
324: What are the phases in the QuickTest workflow?
A. Plan,
Record, Enhance, Run
B.
Prepare, Record, Verify, Run
C. Plan,
Create, Verify & Enhance
D.
Prepare, Create, Verify & Enhance, Integrate
Q.
325: Why is low-level recording mode useful?
A. It
records exact keyboard operations on an object.
B. It
records exact coordinates of all mouse movements.
C. It uses
the object repository to determine what methods can be used.
Q.
326: What are test object properties?
A. Those
properties as defined in a description Object
B. Those
properties as defined in Object identification
C. Those
properties displayed by an object at run-time
D. Those
properties used in the Object Repository for object identification
Q.
327: What is the function of the Object Repository Manager?
A. Assign
variable names to test objects
B.
View/make/modify a Local Object Repository
C.
View/make/modify a Shared Object Repository
D. Define
new test objects using programmatic descriptions
Q.
328: Where are virtual object collections stored?
A. In a
Function Library
B. In the
local Object Repository
C. In the
Object Repository Manager
D. Dat
folder inside of the QTP installation directory
Q.
329: In the Object Identification dialog box, which properties can be viewed?
A.
The base filter and optional properties
B. The
mandatory and optional properties
C. The
base filter and assistive properties
D. The
mandatory and assistive properties
Q.
330: Where do you turn Smart Identification IN?
A. The
Object Repository
B. The
Test Settings dialog
C. The
General Options dialog
D. The
Object Identification dialog
321
|
322
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323
|
324
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325
|
326
|
327
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328
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329
|
330
|
D
|
B
|
B
|
D
|
A
|
D
|
C
|
D
|
D
|
D
|
Q.
331: How do you know if Smart Identification has been used in a test?
A. The
Smart Identification icon appears in the test results
B. The
test results will show a run error, causing a test failure
C. The
properties used by the object repository will be changed
D. The
Object Repository will show the Smart Identification icon
Q.
332: What options are available to filter objects in the Target Object
Repository pane when merging object repositories?
A. Show
all objects or Show only objects with conflicting object types
B. Show
all objects or Show only objects with conflicting descriptions
C. Show
only objects with conflicting logical names or Show only objects with
conflicting object types
D. Show
only objects with conflicting logical names or Show only objects with
conflicting descriptions
Q.
333: What is the default ordinal identifier?
A. The
location
B. The
object id
C. The
nativeclass
D. The
index number
Q.
334: Which statement is used to associate a procedure with a test object class?
A.
RegisterFunction
B.
RegisterUserProc
C.
RegisterUserFunc
D.
RegisterProcedure
Q.
335: What must you do before a shared object repository can be edited?
A. Enable
Editing
B. Add a
new object
C. Open
the object repository
D. Open an
action that uses that shared object repository
Q.
336: Where do you configure an action to use a shared object repository?
A. Test
Settings
B. Action
Settings
C. Action
Call Properties
D.
Associate Repositories
Q.
337: You should use local object repositories when you:
A. Work
with single-action tests
B. Work
with multiple-action tests
C. Create
multiple tests for a single application
D. Expect
the test object properties to change frequently
Q.
338: Where can you merge two shared object repositories?
A. The
Object Repository
B. The
Object Repository Manager
C. The
Associate Object Repositories Tool
D. You can
only merge local object repositories
Q.
339: In the Expert View, the following is always visible and the Expert View
always displays the script for the selected action?
A. Action
List
B. Expert
List
C. Check
List
D. View
List
Q.
340: When you modify the name of an object, in the local object repository the
name is automatically updated in _____ for all occurrences of the object
A. Keyword
View
B. Both
Keyword & Expert View
C. Expert
View
D.
Changing the name of an object does not affect keyword or Expert View
331
|
332
|
333
|
334
|
335
|
336
|
337
|
338
|
339
|
340
|
A
|
B
|
A
|
C
|
A
|
D
|
A
|
B
|
A
|
B
|
A. Only when Smart Identification is enabled
B. When the Ordinal identifier is set to Index
C. When the base filter properties are not sufficient for unique identification
D. When the mandatory properties are not sufficient for unique identification
Q. 342: When a test with multiple actions is saved, which component is added in each action within the test?
A. User log file
B. Global Data Table
C. Object Repository
D. Active Screen settings
Q. 343: The test settings of Test A have been set to Run from row 1 to row 4 in the Data Table iterations section. Action As Action Call Properties is set to Run all rows. How many times in total will Action A be executed if the Local Data Table has 5 rows and the Global Data Table has 10 rows?
A. 20
B. 40
C. 14
D. 50
Q. 344: When enhancing your tests, what do programmatic descriptions allow you to do? Select three. A. Utilize the Object Repository.
B. Bypass the Object Repository.
C. Perform the same operation on a list of objects with similar properties.
D. Perform different operations on a list of objects with different properties.
E. Perform an operation on a dynamic object chosen based on run-time object properties.
Q. 345: Which QuickTest Professional tool can be used to identify the Run-time Object Properties and Methods of an object in the application under test?
A. Object Spy
B. Object Repository
C. Object Identification
D. Object Repository Manager
Q. 346: Why are regular expressions used in tests? Select two.
A. To set an object property
B. To define an object property
C. To check the addins installed
D. To define a checkpoint's range of values
Q. 347: How can you make a test bypass the Object Repository during test run?
A. Turn the Object Repository off
B. Use a programmatic description
C. Delete all objects in all repositories
D. Add the object in the Object Repository Manager
Q. 348: How can you tell that QuickTest Professional 9.2 is running a test in Normal mode?
A. It minimizes the Active Screen.
B. It displays an execution marker.
C. It does not display an execution marker.
D. It displays a message box indicating it is running in Normal mode.
Q. 349: During recording, which function key generates a Standard Checkpoint?
A. F1
B. F3
C. F10
D. F12
Q. 350: Which file contains the sequence of user actions captured during recording?
A. Script.mts
B. Default.xls
C. Resource.mtr
D. ObjectRepository.bdb
341 |
342 |
343 |
344 |
345 |
346 |
347 |
348 |
349 |
350 |
D |
C |
A |
B,C,E |
A |
B,D |
B |
B |
D |
A |
Q. 351: Which components are created by default with each new
action? Select three.
A.
Folder
B. Local Data Sheet
C. Global Data Sheet
D. Local Object Repository
E. Global Object Repository
Q. 352: Which utility object
can be used to send a message to the Test Results?B. Local Data Sheet
C. Global Data Sheet
D. Local Object Repository
E. Global Object Repository
A. Setting
B. Reporter
C. Properties
D. Environment
Q. 353: What are the two main options available in the Record and Run Settings dialog box for Windows applications? Select two.
A. Record and Run Only On
B. Record and Run Test on Any Open Browser
C. Record and Run Only on the Windows Desktop
D. Record and Run Test on Any Open Windows-based Application
Q. 354: What is the keyword used to define how the counter variable in a ForNext loop increments?
A. ++
B. Skip
C. Step
D. ExitFor
Q. 355: How does QuickTest Professional categorize an object?
A. By its Value
B. By its Class
C. By its Properties
D. By its Window focus
Q. 356: Which QuickTest Professional term describes a function that provides more time for an object to process before moving on to the next step?
A. Test Object
B. Wait Statement
C. Custom Checkpoint
D. Synchronization Point
Q. 357: Which type of parameter is system-generated during a test run?
A. Output
B. Environment
C. XML Structure
D. Random number
Q. 358: What are the elements of a test step in QuickTest Professional 9.2? Select three.
A. Item
B. Value
C. Action
D. Window
E. Process
F. Operation
G. Procedure
Q. 359: Which of the following are valid settings for the Active Screen capture level? Select three.
A. All
B. Full
C. Partial
D. Complete
E. Minimum
F. Maximum
Q. 360: During recording, from which command or feature can you add a Synchronization point?
A. Edit menu
B. Insert menu
C. Tools menu
D. Active Screen
351 |
352 |
353 |
354 |
355 |
356 |
357 |
358 |
359 |
360 |
A,B,D |
B |
A,D |
C |
B |
D |
D |
A,B,F |
C,D,E |
B |
Q. 361: After running a
test that contains output parameters, where can a user find the results of an
output parameter?
A. Active ScreenB. Test Summary
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
Q. 362: What are the default capture levels of Active Screen in QuickTest Professional 9.2?
A. All, Most, Some, None
B. Partial, None, Full, Leas
C. Maximum, Minimum, Partial, None
D. None, Complete, Partial, Minimum
Q. 363: What can you accomplish using the Expert View that you are unable accomplish in the Keyword View? Select two.
A. Run parameter values
B. Retrieve test object properties
C. Retrieve run-time object properties
D. Compare and compute object values
E. Add checkpoints from the ActiveScreen
Q. 364: Which feature in the Expert View presents options to finish the current VBScript line you are typing?
A. Function Generator
B. Auto-expand VBScript
C. Statement completion
D. Context-sensitive help
Q. 365: Which type of parameter contains the value of a property captured from the application during a test run?
A. Input
B. Output
C. XML structure
D. Random number
Q. 366: What does the GetTOProperty method do?
A. It retrieves the value of a property from a test object.
B. It retrieves the available properties from a test object.
C. It retrieves the value of a property from a run-time object.
D. It retrieves the available properties from a run-time object.
Q. 367: What is a user-defined object class in the Object Identification dialog?
A. An object class that is defined at run time
B. A standard object mapped to a standard class
C. A user-defined object class mapped to a standard class
D. An object class that is defined by the application under test
Q. 368: Which scripting language is used by QuickTest Professionals Expert View?
A. TSL
B. VBScript
C. JavaScript
D. QuickTestScript
Q. 369: Which compressed file type does QuickTest Professional use to export a test?
A. .rar
B. .zip
C. .iso
D. .pak
Q. 370: Which Checkpoint type provides QuickTest Professional with a way to check one or more properties of an object?
A. Text Checkpoint
B. Bitmap Checkpoint
C. Standard Checkpoint
D. Accessibility Checkpoint
361 |
362 |
363 |
364 |
365 |
366 |
367 |
368 |
369 |
370 |
C |
D |
C,D |
C |
B |
A |
C |
B |
B |
C |
Q. 371: Which menu command do you use to associate a function library to a test?
A. Run Options
B. Test Settings
C. View Options
D. Action Properties
Q. 372: You have just stopped recording steps into your test. Your application-under-test is still up and visible on your screen. You now wish to add some checkpoints into your test using the menu command, Insert -> Checkpoint from the Toolbar. Which checkpoints are available to you? Select two.
A. Text checkpoint
B. XML checkpoint
C. Bitmap checkpoint
D. Text Area checkpoint
E. Database checkpoint
Q. 373: When preparing to run your automated test, from where in the QuickTest Professional 9.2 interface do you restrict the number of iterations an Action will execute?
A. The Test Flow dialog
B. The Test Settings dialog
C. The Action Properties dialog
D. The Action Call Properties dialog
Q. 374: Which looping statements are available in QuickTest Professional? Select three.
A. IfThen
B. ForNext
C. Do...Loop
D. While...Wend
E. SwitchCase
Q. 375: Which method can be used to store a Data Table sheet in an Excel file during the test execution?
A. Send
B. Write
C. SendSheet
D. ExportSheet
Q. 376: Which character is used to combine multiple statements on one line in QuickTest Professional 9.2 Expert View?
A. A colon
B. A hyphen
C. A semi-colon
D. An underscore
Q. 377: When a test is run in Update mode, what options can you select? Select three.
A. The Data table
B. The checkpoint properties
C. The Test Object descriptions
D. The action names in the test
E. The logical names in the test
F. The Active Screen images and values
Q. 378: While working in the Expert View, you type an object followed by a dot. What does QuickTest Professional display after that dot? Select three.
A. The parent object
B. The child objects
C. The methods for that object
D. The properties for that object
E. The arguments for that object
F. The checkpoints for that object
Q. 379: To use environment variables to specify the applications or browsers you want to use for your test run, you must use the appropriate variable names e.g. the variable name for the Web address to display in the browser is
A. URL_VAR
B. URL_EN
C. URL_ENV
D. URL_VA
Q. 380: To bypass the Object Repository you can:
A. Turn the Object Repository off
B. Use a programmatic description
C. Delete all objects in all repositories
D. Add the object to the Object Repository Manager
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372 |
373 |
374 |
375 |
376 |
377 |
378 |
379 |
380 |
B |
B,E |
D |
B,C,D |
D |
A |
B,C,F |
B,C,D |
B |
B |
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